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Code d'Examen: 3001
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Configuration and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is installing an IP500v2 with one hundred 1600 series IP Phones. The customer has an
existing Juniper VPN gateway for their remote workers and would like to provide hard telephones for their
remote workers to login at home.
What is needed to accomplish this?
A. modified 46xxsettings.scr file
B. VPN gateway for each remote worker
C. 1616 IP Phone with VPN software
D. modified 46vpnsettings.txt file
Answer: B

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NO.2 On the IP Office SIP line, the customer has marked the Network Topology to "None". The IP Office
STUN program is run on IP Office LAN1 and the results show "Symmetric Firewall" on LAN2.
How would IP Office route SIP calls?
A. SIP Calls will be routed by the IP Office NAT table.
B. SIP Calls will be routed by the IP Office routing table.
C. SIP calls will be routed on LAN 1 because "Symmetric Firewall" provides "Security".
D. SIP calls will be routed on I AN 2 because "Open Internet" is a direct connection to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Alarm Set action in Voicemail Pro allows an alarm call to be set up and played to a specified
extension at a specified time. The telephone will display "Alarm" and the prompt that will play is. "This is
an alarm call please hang up".
Which description is true?
A. The telephone display message cannot be changed.
The prompt can be changed by telephone but cannot use a .wav file.
B. The telephone display message cannot be changed.
The prompt cannot be changed.
C. The telephone display message can be changed.
The prompt can be changed by telephone but cannot use a .wav file.
D. The telephone display message can be changed.
The prompt can be changed by telephone or can use a .wav file.
Answer: D

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NO.4 After an IP Office upgrade, the customer reports that "Please Wait" continuously appears on the 5420
DS telephone.
What will resolve the problem?
A. Start the IP Office Manager application.
B. The 5420 DS is corrupted and must be replaced.
C. If IP Office does not restart correctly. Power-off and power-on IP Office and the problem will be
corrected.
D. The CCR lost connection to IP Office. Wait until the LED on the CCR status turns green again and the
telephone will start to work.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which application will allow a system administrator to see historical inbound and outbound traffic
information on a trunk in the IP Office?
A. Advanced Summary Reporter
B. CallDetail Reporter
C. System Status Application
D. Historical Reporting Application
Answer: C

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NO.6 When testing an implementation, users are attempting to dial out of the system (outbound tall) and they
receive the message Unobtainable
on the display of their telephones, and the tall fails.
What is the cause of the problem.?
A. The user rights are not defined.
B. The upgrade license is not valid in the IP Office.
C. The lines on the system are out of service.
D. The users have not been assigned a direct dial code.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two are power options for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class "B" 24 Volt power supply
B. Class "A" 24 Volt power supply
C. Power over Ethernet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
D. 1151D1 individual Power Supply and the 115D2 Individual Power Supply with Buttery Backup
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 A customer has UMS enabled on their VoiceMail Pro server. They wish to use Microsoft Outlook to
retrieve voicemail messages and are not using Microsoft Exchange as the message store.
Which protocol must be configured in Microsoft Outlook to access their messages?
A. POP3
B. IMAP
C. HTTP
D. MAPI
Answer: B

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NO.9 Where can additional IP Office Service User logins be setup?
A. the IP Office Softphone Application
B. the IP Office System Monitor Application
C. the IP Office Manager Network Configuration
D. the IP Office Manager Security Settings
Answer: D

Avaya   3001   3001   3001

NO.10 .What is the format for an ARS short rode to dial a telephone number on a SIP line with Trunk ID 20?
A. Number: N;
Telephone Number: N ± @ s i pp r pv i de r. co
Feature: Dial Line Group 20
B. Number: N
Telephone Number: N @sipprpvider.com
Feature: Dial
Line Group 20
C. Number: N;
Telephone Number: Nsi7204441000
Feature: Dial
Line Group 20
D. Number: N;
Telephone Number: N sipprpvider
Feature: Dial
Line Group 20
Answer: A

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NO.11 Calls into the IP500 are not ringing to the expected user.
Which statement correctly describes how the Call routing is validated?
A. Use the System Status Application (SSA) to see what user the call is ringing to.
B. Use Customer Call Status (CCS) to see what user the call is ringing to.
C. Capture a System Monitor trace and escalate to Avaya for an answer.
D. Wait until the system Is Idle and place test calls so you can hear which telephone is ringing.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which application can be used in conjunction with one-X Portal to provide full softphone and call
handling capability for users?
A. IP Office Voice Portal
B. IP office Video Softphone
C. IP Office Phone Manager Pro
D. IP Office Softconsole
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which license will enable VoiceMail Pro database interactions?
A. Basic Edition
B. Essential Edition
C. Preferred Edition
D. Advanced Edition
Answer: D

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NO.14 A customer has an IP500v2 and would like the ability to monitor the IP Office system resources from
anywhere in the network. Which two will allow thorn to do this? (Choose two.)
A. System Status Application
B. Telnet session to the IP Office
C. Web session to the IP Office address
D. SSH session to the IP Office address
Answer: A,C

Avaya   3001 examen   3001   3001   3001

NO.15 From which application are log files required for escalating issues to Avaya support?
A. Manager Report
B. Customer Call Status
C. System Monitor
D. SMDR
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 6402
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two features arc supported by the Embedded Voicemail on the IP Office platform? (Choose two.)
A. Network Mailbox
B. Voicemail to Email
C. Virtual DistributionList
D. Public Distribution Box
E. DTMFBreakout from mailbox
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which two steps must be completed to get Embedded Voice Mail (EVM) Dial by Name to work correctly?
(Choose two.)
A. Add names to the system directory.
B. Users need to record theirnames.
C. Configure DialBy Name action off Auto Attendant.
D. EmbeddedVoicemail code is set.
Answer: A,B

Avaya examen   certification 6402   6402   6402   6402   certification 6402

NO.3 Given the following Short Codes and system settings:
What will happen after a user dials 500?
A. The system will waitforadditional digits and timeout if no additional digits are presented.
B. The system will immediately present a wave off tone as thereis a conflict.
C. The system will immediately dial Extn203.
D. The system willdial Extn 203 after four seconds.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer with digital stations uses their outbound digital lines at 95% of capacity.
Which variable should be considered when planning for future growth?
A. the number of VCM channels
B. the number of hunt groups
C. the number of users
D. the number of trunks
Answer: D

Avaya examen   6402   6402   6402 examen   6402   6402

NO.5 In Manager, where can the voicemail type be selected for the IP Office to use Embedded Voicemail?
A. Line form
B. User form
C. System form
D. Auto Attendant form
Answer: C

Avaya   6402   certification 6402

NO.6 Which tool can be used to convert .wav files to the formats used by Embedded Voicemail?
A. Advanced File Upgrade
B. HTMLconverter
C. Save Files asfeature within Manager
D. LVM Greeting Utility
Answer: D

Avaya   6402   6402   6402 examen   6402 examen

NO.7 In the exhibit, the User Profile for Amy Clement shows button programming. All buttons have a small
lock that appears to the left of the button.
What does the lock indicate?
A. The buttons can be changed or configured by the user.
B. The buttons only appearwhen the useris set to be a Public User.
C. The buttons have been programmed within User Rights.
D. The buttons ate unavailable to users setas Basic Worker.
Answer: C

Avaya   6402   6402 examen   6402

NO.8 When manually setting up an IP telephone, which setting represents the IP address of the IP Office.?
A. Phonetyp
B. SwitchSv
C. CallSv
D. Filetyp
Answer: C

Avaya   6402   certification 6402   6402   6402

NO.9 Given the following System Short Codes and system settings:
What will happen if a user attempts to dial the 500 Short Code?
A. Extension 203 will be dialed.
B. Extension 210 will be dialed
C. Extension 210 will be dialed after 4 seconds.
D. The system will timeout and no extension will be dialed.
Answer: A

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NO.10 The customer wants to rack mount an IP500 system. The room that the system will be installed in has a
25" width rack with space in it. Which additional equipment is needed to install the system in a rack?
A. a Standard 19" Rack
B. yellow2meterinterconnect cables
C. an Uninterruptable Power Supply
D. an IP400 Rack Mounting Kit
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 6001-1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Session Manager and System Manager)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 An IMS type feature server has been installed by another administrator beam. They
have also
configured Session Manager to route all incoming calls for user John Smith to be routed to
the new
feature server, It appears from traces and capturing network traffic that Session Manager
does indeed
route john Smith s incoming calls to the feature server, but that the feature server does not
appear to take
any action besides returning the request bock to Session Manager Which field has been
NCORRECTLY
configured?
A. Application Handle
B. Entity Link port
C. Orignating Application Sequence
D. Terminating Application Sequence
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is Call Admission Control enabled?
A. Call Admission Control is enabled in the SIP Entity by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per fall
and Managed Bandwidth
B. Call Admission Control is enabled on the Session Manager instance by specifying a value
for Average
bandwidth per can and Managed Bandwidth
C. Call Admission Control is enabled on a Location by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth
D. Call Admission Control is enabled on an Entity Link specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth on the Location screen in Session Manager
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which component of the Communication Profile can be changed by modifying a user
via
Communication Profile Edition?
A. Communication Address
B. Session Manager Profile
C. Endpoint Profile
D. Messaging Profile
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two statements describe how adaptations affect the routing of a request?
(Choose two)
A. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered incoming
adaptation
B. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
C. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered incoming
adaptation
D. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
Answer: A, D

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NO.5 Which definition describes a Session Manager community?
A. A community represents a group of users in a single location or group of locations. A
community helps
define maximum numbers of users in each location for purposes of bandwidth management,
quality of
service, and Call Admissions Control
B. A community is a group of peer Session Manager instances in an enterprise organization.
Each
Session Manager in the community automatically shares configuration and policy data,
meaning that
administrators settings and policies only once and that all Session Managers will process
requests in the
same way
C. A community represents all SIP Entities known to a Session Manager it is through the
community that
data from SIP Entities can be collected and merged, ready tor easy analysis
D. A community is a sub-divided group of users in which half of the group make use of one
Session
Manager as their Primary while the other half make use of a different Session Manager as
their Primary
Each half also makes use of the other Session Manager as their Secondary for purposes of
redundancy
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the benefit of using the Communication Profile Editor to modify users?
A. It allows an administrator to change all the values of the Communication Profile settings
for multiple
SIP System Manager users at one time
B. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager user at one tine
C. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple SIP users
at one time
D. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple users at
one time
E. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager users at one time
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which URL should be used to access the web console to deploy System Manager?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/Webconsole
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two outcomes of running SMnetSetup on a server that has an existing
installation of Session
Manager? (Choose two)
A. The network and date/time is configured on the server
B. A system administrator login will be created
C. The same version of the Session Manager software currently installed is re-installed
D. The current version of the Session Manager software is upgraded
Answer: A, B

Avaya   6001-1 examen   6001-1   6001-1   6001-1

NO.9 When you upgrade Session Manager and you had been using the hardware SM-100,
the network
connection of the SM-100 must be moved to which port on the Session Manager server?
A. eth2 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 2
B. eth2 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 3
C. eth0 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 1
D. eth0 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 0
Answer: B

Avaya   6001-1   6001-1   6001-1

NO.10 Session Manager has a routing policy that routes calls made to any number beginning
with 100
to SIP
Entity X. However, sip: 1001@avaya com
is the SP communication profile address of user Y, User Y is
not currently registered (signed in )with Session Manager What will happen if Session
Manager receives
a call addressed to sip 1001@avaya com
and exactly why?
A. It depends on the time ranges of the policy If the call is placed inside a defined tine range
for the policy,
the call will be routed to destination X If not, then Session Manager will attempt to route the
call to user Y.
Since Y is not registered, the call will timeout, and the call will fail
B. Since user Y is not currently registered, the call will be handled by the routing policy. If the
call is placed
during a time rage specified by the call policy, then the call will be routed to destination X. If
not, then the
call will fail
C. Since the destination URI matches a communication profile SIP handle, Session Manager
will not use
the routing policy in handing the call The call will fail since user Y is not currently registered
D. Since the destination URI matches a routing policy dial pattern, Session Manager will give
no
consideration to the user Y registration status, xx the call is made during a time rage for the
policy, the
policy will be applied and the will be routed to be destination X. If not, then the orignal URL of
sip
1001@avaya com will be used as the destination to which Session Manager will route the
call
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 6203-1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Voice Portal Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the last step to be completed before testing the initialization and configuration?
A. Start the MPPs.
C. Stop the MPPS.
C. Start Applications.
D. Stop Applications.
Answer: A

Avaya examen   6203-1   6203-1 examen

NO.2 A technician cannot see the VPMS web interface. What is the first thing that should be
done?
A. Restart all MPPs that are connected to the VPMS.
B. Reload the VPMS software.
C. Make sure that Axis is running.
D. Make sure that Tomcat is running.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer is using skills-based routing. Which Acaya Aura CM forms must be
administered to map the
requirements to agents/ports?
A. Vector and Agent LoginID forms
B. Hunt Group and Skill forms
C. Skill and Agent LoginID forms
D. Vector and Split forms
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6203-1   6203-1   certification 6203-1

NO.4 Why is the "Hot word" Barge-in mechanism used?
A. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance is caught on that
prompt
B. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the
grammar
C. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the
grammar and the decision is defined
D. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the
prompt
Answer: C

Avaya   6203-1 examen   certification 6203-1

NO.5 Which statement about Auxiliary VPMS is true?
A. Only one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
B. More than one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
C. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed on a single server Voice Portal system.
D. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed co-resident with MPP server.
Answer: B

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NO.6 From the VPMS web interface, which menu path should be followed, to view the
current status of all
MPP servers and get detailed information about any alarms they have generated?
A. System Configuration > System Monitor
B. System Configuration > MPP Management
C. Real-Time Monitoring > Monitor System
D. Teal-Time Monitoring > System Monitor
Answer: A

certification Avaya   6203-1 examen   6203-1 examen

NO.7 A customer has just upgraded Voice Portal to a newer version, but the license is not
upgraded. What is
the grace period provided by the system, for upgrading the license?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: D

Avaya   6203-1   6203-1   certification 6203-1

NO.8 In addition to the Project Overview, Standard service hours, Call Center Telephony
Review, Call Center
Reporting Review, which other service is included in the Statement of Word (SOW)
component of a
project?
A. Call Center Development Services
B. Call Center Programming Services
C. Call Center Leadership Services
D. Call Center Consultant Services
Answer: A

Avaya examen   6203-1 examen   6203-1   6203-1   6203-1   6203-1

NO.9 A customer is planning to deploy a Voice Portal solution, and wants to make sure they
have considered
all aspects of their implementation design components. As a key component of the
implementation, which
documents are included in the Document Review?
A. Deep Drive Results, Equipment List, Customer List, and SOW
B. Customer Scenario, Equipment List, SOW and Deep Dive Results
C. Customer Scenario, Hardware List, Deep Dive Results and SOW
D. Customer List, Hardware List, SOW and the Equipment List
Answer: B

Avaya examen   6203-1   6203-1   6203-1

NO.10 Which two methods can be used to initiate a Voice Portal 5 x Primary VPMS restore?
(Choose two.)
A. system restore page in VPMS web administration
B. do_RestoreData -f /opt/Avaya/backup
C. restorempplogs.sh
D. do_MntDrv do_RestoreData -f /opt/Avaya/backup/remotesvr
Answer: BD

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Code d'Examen: 3200
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 A technician wants to determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet
Messaging and Enhanced List Application Software.
On a Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in which location of the Web
Administration pages can this information be found?
A. Reports -> System Evaluation
B. Server Information -> Server Status
C. Utilities -> Messaging DB Audits
D. Logs -> Messaging Start-Up
Answer: B

certification Avaya   certification 3200   certification 3200

NO.2 A customer is reporting a delay in receiving messages with their system. They have a 2
Messaging Application Server (MAS) and a Message Storage Server (MSS). The user did not
have any messages when leaving for the day. The next morning the message waiting indicator
was on, and the message was from a client that called the day before.
Which reports should be reviewed to troubleshoot this Issue?
A. Under Programs>Avaya Modular Messaging>Reporting Tools run the System Usage and U
Mailbox statistics reports.
B. Review the Administration History under Logs on the Message Store.
C. Review the Subscriber Activity log under Logs on the Message Store.
D. Review the Server Event log under Logs on the Message Store.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 3200   3200

NO.3 A technician is installing a service pack on a system that uses an Avaya Message Storage Server
(MSS) in a private Windows domain.
To ensure that the updates for the MSS are successfully Installed, on the Messaging Application
Server (MAS), which account should the installer log in as?
A. Corporate Domain User
B. Exchange Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Local Administrator
Answer: D

certification Avaya   3200   3200   3200   3200

NO.4 Which three statements are true about the Enhanced List Application (ELA) lists that can be
used? (Choose three.)
A. The administrator has to setup up an ELA shadow mailbox before users can send ELA
messages.
B. An ELA mailbox is like any other mailbox, allowing such operations as recording a name and a
greeting for the list, and allowing Call Answer messages to be distributed through ELA.
C. Administrators can restrict ELA lists so that users can't reply to messages they receive from the
list.
D. A Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MSS) system supports a maximum of 250
ELA list and each ELA list can have a maximum of 250 members.
E. ELA members must be local subscribers and cannot be arbitrary e-mail addresses.
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya   3200 examen   certification 3200   3200

NO.5 A customer had a catastrophic failure, and has just finished reloading a system. They would
like to restore all their data horn an ftp/sftp backup. Which statement described the first Step to
restoring their data in this manner?
A. Stop the voice system processing.
B. Install the latest service pack and patches.
C. Administer the TCP/IP settings
D. Reboot the Messaging Storage Server (MSS).
Answer: A

certification Avaya   3200   certification 3200   3200

NO.6 An installer is implementing a Modular Messaging Single Server configuration.
Which kind of file can the installer use to pre-populate data such as networking information in the
pre-installation web pages?
A. DCT
B. EPW
C. MSI
D. OVF
Answer: B

Avaya examen   3200   certification 3200

NO.7 Which backup type is supported for the Avaya Modular Messaging Single Server?
A. Type 2 or 4 DVD RAM cartridge
B. DVD-RW disk
C. FTP/SFTP backup
D. Norton Ghost
Answer: C

Avaya   3200 examen   3200 examen   3200   certification 3200

NO.8 A system can be set up to run on either S8730, S8800, or HP DL360 G7 hardware that is
configured to just SIP integration.
Which two statements are true about the number of voice channels that an individual Messaging
Application Server (MAS) can support? (Choose two.)
A. In a Single Server configuration, the MAS can support a maximum of 48 voice channels.
B. An individual MAS server can support up 120 voice channels.
C. An individual MAS server can support up to 96 voice channels.
D. An individual MAS server can allow as many possible connections as the bandwidth to the
allows
Answer: A,C

Avaya   3200   3200   3200   3200

NO.9 A customer is migrating from Modular Messaging 3.0 on a S3400 server to Modular Messaging
5.2. Which two pieces of information must be obtained to successfully complete this migration?
(Choose two.)
A. the PBX translations
B. the original planning forms for the system that runs on release 3.0
C. the latest analyzed DCT file for the system
D. the private Messaging Application Server (MAS) and Messaging Storage Server (MSS)
NetBIOS name
Answer: B,C

Avaya   3200 examen   certification 3200   3200

NO.10 An installer is manually configuring an Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS). When setting up
the network addressing, the installer must enter a host name for the MSS.
What would be a valid MSS host name in an implementation that uses the Aria TUI?
A. MM52mss-corp
B. MM52mss[corp\]
C. MM52mss_corp
D. MM52mss@corp
Answer: A,C

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Code d'Examen: 3306
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Contact Recording and Avaya Quality Monitoring Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two types of reports which can be generated using Enterprise Reporting? (Choose
two)
A. Calibration Reports
B. Call by Call Reports
C. Real Time Reports
D. Graphical Reports
E. Trending Reports
Answer: A,E

Avaya   certification 3306   3306

NO.2 Which three directories should be excluded from anti-virus software running on the Avaya
Quality
Monitoring Server? (Choose three)
A. PostgresSQL directory
B. QM directory
C. Tomcat directory
D. SQL Server Files and directories
E. Program Files directory
Answer: C,D,E

Avaya examen   3306 examen   certification 3306   certification 3306

NO.3 You are planning to install an Avaya Contact Recorder on customer site that is using an Avaya
Communication Manager as a PBX.
Which two devices should reachable by the Contact Recorder? (Choose two)
A. Avaya Session Manager
B. Avaya Application Enablement Server
C. Avaya IP Telephones
D. Avaya Communication Manager Gateway
Answer: B,D

Avaya   3306   3306 examen   certification 3306

NO.4 Your customer is asking questions about the reliability of their new Avaya Contact Recording
system. They have only one physical recorder.
As far as reliability is concerned, which two options would be available for your customer?
(Choose two)
A. The operating system and call database should be RAID 1 and the recording storage area
should be RAID 5
B. Use a fault tolerant Storage Area Network (SAN)
C. Record calls directly to a network attached storage (NAS)
D. Record calls directly to a tape drive
E. Use any backup software to back up the system daily
Answer: A,B

certification Avaya   certification 3306   3306   certification 3306

NO.5 When an Avaya Contact Recording server is installed with more than one Network Interface
Card
(NIC), what should be set to indicate which NIC to use for Audio and screen content streams?
A. General Setup > Recorder > Replay Server(s)
B. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
C. General Setup > Recorder > IP address on this server to use for recordings
D. General Setup > Recorder URL(s) of external port(s) to connect to
Answer: C

Avaya   3306   3306 examen   3306   3306

NO.6 In the enterprise Reporting Webpage, which two troubleshooting tests are available under ETL
tasks?
A. Test Quality Monitoring Connection and Test Apache Tomcat Connection
B. Test Extract and Test Quality Monitoring Connection
C. Test Extract and Test Reporter Gateway
D. Test File Locations and Test Database Connection
Answer: D

certification Avaya   3306 examen   3306 examen   3306   3306

NO.7 A customer has installed two Network Interface Cards (NICs) on an Avaya Contact Recording
server, and they are unable to capture Real-time Transport protocol (RTP) packets.
What are three possible reasons they are encountering this problem? (Choose three)
A. The wrong NIC has been selected to use for RTP .
B. Both NICs belong to the same subnet, and are on a different subnet than CLAN/H323, and AES
IP address defined.
C. There is no network path between both NICs and the recorded IP phones.
D. There is no network path between the Avaya Aura® Communication Manager Media resources
and the NIC on the Avaya Contact Recording server to use for RTP .
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya   3306   certification 3306   3306   3306 examen   3306 examen

NO.8 For an Avaya Quality Monitoring Server, which three items should be backed up? (Choose
three)
A. eCorder directory
B. Avaya Quality Monitoring Database
C. Avaya Quality Monitoring Windows Register key
D. postgressql directory
Answer: A,B,C

certification Avaya   3306 examen   3306

NO.9 A technician is configuring the Avaya Contact Recording to work in a CS1000 environment with
AST recording.
Which entry must be added in the Avaya Contact Recording properties file for this configuration to
work correctly?
A. cc.v6=false
B. aacc.v6=false
C. cc.v6=true
D. aacc.v6=true
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 3306   3306   certification 3306

NO.10 The license Avaya Contact Recording a three digit code is needed. What is this code called,
and
where can it be found?
A. Avaya CR License Code; Recorder Status > Ports
B. License Generation key; System > License
C. Avaya CR License Code; System > License
D. License Generation key; generation Setup > Recorder
Answer: B

Avaya examen   3306   3306   3306 examen

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Code d'Examen: RDCR08201
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Crystal Reports 2008 - Level One)
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A.Move
B.Insert
C.Delete
D.Copy
E.Cut
Answer:D E

Business-Objects examen   RDCR08201   RDCR08201 examen

NO.2 You have created a report with a parameter but the parameter value is not always required. Which
method should you use?
A.Set Editable to True
B.Set Null Values to True
C.Set Custom Values to True
D.Set Optional Prompt to True
Answer:D

Business-Objects examen   RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201

NO.3 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A.Browse Field
B.Repository Explorer
C.Formula Field Search
D.Global Formula Search
Answer:D

Business-Objects   RDCR08201 examen   RDCR08201

NO.4 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A.Insert a group name field.
B.Insert a summary field.
C.Insert a running total field.
D.Insert a formula field.
Answer:B

certification Business-Objects   RDCR08201 examen   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.5 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic. Which method must you use to achieve
the required result?
A.Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C.Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer:B

Business-Objects   RDCR08201   RDCR08201 examen   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.6 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A.Local Number x := 1;
B.Local NumberVal x := 1;
C.Local NumberVar x := 1;
D.Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer:A B D

Business-Objects   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201 examen   RDCR08201

NO.7 What are three Crystal Reports 2008 viewer features? (Choose three.)
A.Docked/Stationary Toolbar
B.Export to Microsoft PowerPoint
C.Java DHTML Viewer Exporting
D.Independent Group Tree Scrolling
Answer:A C D

Business-Objects   RDCR08201   RDCR08201 examen   RDCR08201

NO.8 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A.UI Batch Size
B.Database Timeout
C.Maximum LOV Size
D.Maximum Rowset Records
Answer:A C

Business-Objects   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.9 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition?
A.Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B.Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage = "Enabled"
Answer:A

Business-Objects   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201

NO.10 Which two reasons explain why the Group Sort Expert is disabled when you attempt to create a Top N
report? (Choose two.)
A.You are in Design view.
B.The data was not refreshed.
C.You are in a Drill Down view.
D.The report is missing a summary value.
Answer:C D

Business-Objects   RDCR08201   RDCR08201 examen   RDCR08201 examen   certification RDCR08201

NO.11 Which three If-Then-Else control structure formulas in Crystal syntax will generate an error? (Choose
three.)
A.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then "Under $100" Else Is {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then
"Between $100 and $200"
B.If {Orders.order Amount} < 1000 Then "Low" Else "High"
C.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then formula = "Under $100" ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to
200 Then formula = "Between $100 and $200" EndIf
D.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 200 Then Under $200 Else If {Orders.Order Amount} in 200 to 300 Then
Between $200 and $300
Answer:A C D

Business-Objects examen   RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.12 You want to create a formula using the Formula Workshop. You begin by right-clicking Formula Fields
in the Field Explorer and then click the New button. What happens after you click the New button?
A.You must select the type of formula and click OK.
B.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor inactive.
C.You must enter a formula name and click OK.
D.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor active.
Answer:C

Business-Objects   RDCR08201 examen   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.13 When should you use parameters?
A.When creating conditional Top N reports.
B.When identifying the data source location.
C.When identifying trends in data.
D.When creating dynamic groups.
Answer:D

Business-Objects examen   certification RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201

NO.14 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data source?
A.Create a local cache of the data source.
B.Create a connection to the data source.
C.Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D.Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer:D

Business-Objects examen   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.15 You make changes to the record selection criteria in a Crystal report. In which two circumstances
should you choose the Refresh Data option rather than the Use Saved Data option? (Choose two.)
A.When up-to-the-minute, current information must be displayed on the report.
B.When adding one or more selection criteria.
C.When it is important to avoid time delays caused by network traffic during database server connects.
D.When removing one or more existing selection criteria.
Answer:A D

Business-Objects examen   RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201 examen

NO.16 You are designing a Crystal report that summarizes customer orders by country, then by state, then by
city and by customer ID. You want the report to print each country on a new page. The first page should
display a bar chart showing Total Sales by Country group in the Report Header and as much of the first
country as can be displayed. The last page should show the summary for the last country and the grand
total for the entire report. Which step can you perform in the Section Expert to achieve the design goal?
A.Set New Page After on for Group Footer #1
B.Conditionally format the New Page After property for Group Footer #1 using the formula "not
onlastrecord"
C.Format the New Page After property for Group Header #1 using the formula "not onlastrecord"
D.Set New Page After on for the Report Header section
Answer:B

Business-Objects examen   certification RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.17 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A.IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B.NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C.IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D.NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer:C D

Business-Objects   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201 examen

NO.18 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A.You do not have access to the database.
B.The Page Header section is suppressed.
C.A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D.You have not saved the report with data.
Answer:C

Business-Objects examen   RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.19 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A.Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B.Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer:A

Business-Objects   RDCR08201 examen   RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201

NO.20 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A.Modification Date
B.Modification LastDate
C.Modification LastUpdate
D.Modification Time
Answer:A

Business-Objects examen   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.21 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A.If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B.If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C.If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D.If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer:A C

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NO.22 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D.Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer:B D

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NO.23 How must you register multiple XML export formats in Crystal Reports 2008?
A.Configure XML export formats using the Define XML dialog.
B.Configure XML export formats using the Manage XML dialog.
C.Add XML export formats using the Manage XML Exporting Formats dialog.
D.Add XML export formats using the Define XML Exporting Formats dialog.
Answer:C

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NO.24 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A.Encrypt object packages.
B.Password protect object packages.
C.Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D.Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer:C

Business-Objects examen   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.25 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A.Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B.Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C.Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D.Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:B C

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NO.26 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A.Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D.Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:C

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NO.27 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A.Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B.Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C.Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D.Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer:B

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NO.28 Which two methods can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
B.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
C.Open the Section Expert and click the Insert button.
D.Click the field name and click the Insert to Report icon at the top of the Field Explorer. Drag the field to
the desired position and left-click to insert.
Answer:B D

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NO.29 Which three options are provided for web pagination? (Choose three.)
A.Navigation controls
B.Page breaking controls
C.Conditional Page Margin controls
D.Portrait versus Landscape controls
Answer:B C D

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NO.30 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A.Numbervar x; x = 5;
B.Dim x as Number x = 5
C.Dim x as Number x := 5
D.Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer:D

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Code d'Examen: QAWI301
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Business Objects Web Intelligence XI 3)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to force the calculation context for a variable in a large report with many
dimensions. Which operator allows you to add a dimension to the default context?
A. In
B. All
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true of an output context operator?
A. It is placed within the brackets of the dimension list.
B. It is placed outside of the brackets of the dimension list.
C. It is placed within the brackets of the aggregation function.
D. It is placed outside of the brackets of the aggregation function.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three methods can you use to combine queries using the Web Intelligence Rich Client?
(Choose three.)
A. UNION
B. MINUS
C. UNION ALL
D. INTERSECT
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 A variable in your report contains the statement:
=If[State] = "California" Then [Sales revenue] * 1.05 Else If[State] = "Colorado" Then [Sales
revenue] *
1.1 Else If[State] InList ("DC";"Texas ") Then [Sales revenue] * 1.15 Else If[State] =
"Massachusetts"
Then [Sales revenue] * 1.18 Else [Sales revenue]
Sales revenue for Florida is $1,879,159. Which rate is applied to the Florida revenue by the
formula?
A. 1.00
B. 1.05
C. 1.10
D. 1.15
E. 1.18
Answer: A

Business-Objects examen   QAWI301   QAWI301   certification QAWI301   QAWI301   QAWI301

NO.5 You have a regional sales report with State, City and Sales Revenue dimensions. You want to
create a variable that excludes State from the output context. Which output statement should you
use?
A. In([State])
B. Out([State])
C. ForAll([State])
D. ForEach([State])
Answer: C

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NO.6 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with data and want to use data tracking. The
Data Tracking button is however grayed out. Which action should you take to enable formatting of
the tracked data?
A. Contact the system administrator.
B. Edit the document in tracking mode.
C. Open the document in tracking mode.
D. Enable data tracking in the Document Properties.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How much impact does data tracking have on the data size of a Web Intelligence document
(WID)compared to the same document without data tracking?
A. It will stay the same size.
B. It will increase two times.
C. It will increase three times.
D. It will increase by 50% on each refresh.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with tracked data changes.
You wish to change the color of the tracked data. You however cannot change the format of the
tracked data. What should you do to enable formatting of the tracked data?
A. Contact the system administrator.
B. Edit the document in tracking mode.
C. Open the document in tracking mode.
D. Resave the document with data tracking formats enabled.
Answer: A

Business-Objects   QAWI301   QAWI301   QAWI301 examen

NO.9 Where are contexts created?
A. In a report
B. In a universe
C. In a derived table
D. At the database level
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which operator should you use to control the output context of a calculation that is relevant
to the different environment levels within your document?
A. In
B. Out
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 050-V70-CSEDLPS02
Nom d'Examen: RSA (RSA Data Loss Prevention Certified System Engineer 7.x Exam)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Automatic remediation actions can be configured in policy DLP Datacenter
policies in DLP release 7.0 and later releases.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0
Enterprise Manager installation program?
A. Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B. Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C. Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following endpoint actions can be detected, audited or blocked by the
DLP Endpoint Enforcement Agent? (Choose two)
A. Screen capture
B. Printing to a file
C. Bluetooth File transfer
D. Copying to a floppy disk or hard drive
E. Copying a file from one network share to another network share
Answer: B, D

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of DLP Network Sensors, Interceptors, and ICAP
Servers that can be managed by one DLP Network Controller?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. It depends on the license that has been purchased.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? (Choose two)
A. Existing policies may be reordered.
B. Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies
created to replace them.
C. The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be
purchased from RSA .
D. Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan
results and requiring a full scan.
E. Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually
disabled or enabled without affecting the other sections.
Answer: A, E

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Code d'Examen: CISM
Nom d'Examen: ISACA (Certified Information Security Manager)
Questions et réponses: 633 Q&As

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NO.1 The PRIMARY goal in developing an information security strategy is to:
A. establish security metrics and performance monitoring.
B. educate business process owners regarding their duties.
C. ensure that legal and regulatory requirements are met.
D. support the business objectives of the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An information security manager at a global organization that is subject to regulation by multiple
governmental jurisdictions with differing requirements should:
A. bring all locations into conformity with the aggregate requirements of all governmental jurisdictions.
B. establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required.
C. bring all locations into conformity with a generally accepted set of industry best practices.
D. establish a baseline standard incorporating those requirements that all jurisdictions have in common.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Based on the information provided, which of the following situations presents the GREATEST
information security risk for an organization with multiple, but small, domestic processing locations?
A. Systems operation procedures are not enforced
B. Change management procedures are poor
C. Systems development is outsourced
D. Systems capacity management is not performed
Answer: B

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NO.4 What would a security manager PRIMARILY utilize when proposing the implementation of a security
solution?
A. Risk assessment report
B. Technical evaluation report
C. Business case
D. Budgetary requirements
Answer: C

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NO.5 Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Reaction
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.6 In order to highlight to management the importance of integrating information security in the business
processes, a newly hired information security officer should FIRST:
A. prepare a security budget.
B. conduct a risk assessment.
C. develop an information security policy.
D. obtain benchmarking information.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Who in an organization has the responsibility for classifying information?
A. Data custodian
B. Database administrator
C. Information security officer
D. Data owner
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Internal address translation
C. Prospective employee background checks
D. Employee awareness certification program
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following factors is a primary driver for information security governance that does not
require any further justification?
A. Alignment with industry best practices
B. Business continuity investment
C. Business benefits
D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: D

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NO.10 Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks
B. evaluations in trade publications
C. use of new and emerging technologies
D. benefits in comparison to their costs
Answer: A

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NO.11 A security manager meeting the requirements for the international flow of personal data will need to
ensure:
A. a data processing agreement.
B. a data protection registration.
C. the agreement of the data subjects.
D. subject access procedures.
Answer: C

ISACA   CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.12 From an information security manager perspective, what is the immediate benefit of clearly-defined
roles and responsibilities?
A. Enhanced policy compliance
B. Improved procedure flows
C. Segregation of duties
D. Better accountability
Answer: D

ISACA   CISM   CISM

NO.13 Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management?
A. More expensive to administer
B. Better adherence to policies
C. More aligned with business unit needs
D. Faster turnaround of requests
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy?
A. Creating a positive business security environment
B. Understanding key business objectives
C. Having a reporting line to senior management
D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security
Answer: B

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NO.15 Acceptable risk is achieved when:
A. residual risk is minimized.
B. transferred risk is minimized.
C. control risk is minimized.
D. inherent risk is minimized.
Answer: A

ISACA   certification CISM   CISM

NO.16 Temporarily deactivating some monitoring processes, even if supported by an acceptance of
operational risk, may not be acceptable to the information security manager if:
A. it implies compliance risks.
B. short-term impact cannot be determined.
C. it violates industry security practices.
D. changes in the roles matrix cannot be detected.
Answer: A

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NO.17 What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
A. Number of employees
B. Distance between physical locations
C. Complexity of organizational structure
D. Organizational budget
Answer: C

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NO.18 To achieve effective strategic alignment of security initiatives, it is important that:
A. steering committee leadershipbe selected by rotation.
B. inputs be obtained and consensus achieved between the major organizational units.
C. the business strategybe updated periodically.
D. procedures and standardsbe approved by all departmental heads.
Answer: B

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NO.19 The MOST important component of a privacy policy is:
A. notifications
B. warranties
C. liabilities
D. geographic coverage
Answer: A

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NO.20 An internal audit has identified major weaknesses over IT processing. Which of the following should an
information security manager use to BEST convey a sense of urgency to management?
A. Security metrics reports
B. Risk assessment reports
C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
D. Return on security investment report
Answer: B

ISACA   CISM   CISM

NO.21 How would an information security manager balance the potentially conflicting requirements of an
international organization's security standards and local regulation?
A. Give organization standards preference over local regulations
B. Follow local regulations only
C. Make the organization aware of those standards where local regulations causes conflicts
D. Negotiate a local version of the organization standards
Answer: D

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NO.22 Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through
presentations that:
A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks.
B. explain the technical risks to the organization.
C. evaluate the organization against best security practices.
D. tie security risks to key business objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Identification and prioritization of business risk enables project managers to:
A. establish implementation milestones.
B. reduce the overall amount of slack time.
C. address areas with most significance.
D. accelerate completion of critical paths.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Risk management programs are designed to reduce risk to:
A. a level that is too small to be measurable.
B. the point at which the benefit exceeds the expense.
C. a level that the organization is willing to accept.
D. a rate of return that equals the current cost of capital.
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager's role in a multidisciplinary
team that will address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Answer: B

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NO.26 It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Answer: D

ISACA   certification CISM   CISM

NO.27 Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management
decision making?
A. Control risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Risk exposure
D. Residual risk
Answer: D

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NO.28 What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information
classification within an organization?
A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets
C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly
Answer: A

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NO.29 A risk assessment should be conducted:
A. once a year for each business process andsubprocess.
B. every three-to-six months for critical business processes.
C. by external parties to maintain objectivity.
D. annually or whenever there is a significant change.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
C. Board and senior management
D. Information security steering group
Answer: C

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