2014年2月27日星期四

Guide de formation plus récente de IISFA II0-001

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Code d'Examen: II0-001
Nom d'Examen: IISFA (Certified Information Forensics Investigator(CIFI))
Questions et réponses: 229 Q&As

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NO.1 .To perform a successful traceback, the two most prominent problems that need to
be solved are locating the source of IP packets and:
A. the timestamp of the event
B. determining the first node of a connection chain
C. the reflector host
D. the victim port
Answer: B

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NO.2 .A new protocol that is designed to aid in intrusion protection and IP tracebacks is
known as:
A. Intruder Detection and Isolation Protocol (IDIP)
B. Intrusion Detection and Traceback Protocol (IDTP)
C. Facilitating Traceback Protocol (FTP)
D. Intruder Detection and Internet Protocol (IDIP)
Answer: A

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NO.3 .Social engineer is legal in the United States, Great Britain, Canada, and Australia as
long as the social engineer does not:
A. Attempt to extract corporate secrets
B. Lie
C. Apply the Frye Scenario
D. Live outside those countries
Answer: A

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NO.4 .The 1st amendment allows hackers to exercise free speech by altering content on
websites to express opposing viewpoints.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 Firewalls are an excellent source of:
A. Details of system usage
B. Details of protocol usage
C. Forensic Evidence for malicious attacks
D. Port/service mappings
Answer: C

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001   certification II0-001

NO.6 .The most important network information that should be observed from the logs
during a Traceback is the intruder IP address, the victim IP address, the victim
port, protocol information and the:
A. source port
B. operating system
C. MAC address
D. timestamp
Answer: D

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001

NO.7 .What is the difference between a zombie host and a reflector host?
A. Unlike a zombie, a reflector is a laundering host that fundamentally transforms
and/or delays the attacker's communications before they continue down the attack
path. (Zombie technique)
B. Unlike a zombie, a Traceback through the stepping stone host requires determining if
two communications streams, viewed at different points in the network, have the
same origin and are essentially the same stream. (stepping stone Traceback
technique)
C. Unlike a zombie host, the reflector is an uncompromised host that cooperates with
the attack in an innocent manner consistent with its normal function.
D. A zombie is a version of a reflector host.
Answer: C

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NO.8 .The major disadvantage to techniques that attempt to mark IP packets as they move
through the internet is:
A. A decrease in network efficiency
B. An increase in the packet load
C. An increase in bandwidth consumption
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.9 Drive geometry refers to
A. The algorithms used to computer a specific location of a particular segment.
B. The functional dimensions of a drive in terms of the number of heads, cylinders, and
sectors per track.
C. Physical dimensions of the drive platters.
D. The depth of the pits on optical media or magnetic field charge on magnetic media
Answer: B

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NO.10 .One caution an investigator should take when examining the source of a network
attack is:
A. an occurrence of Social Engineering
B. relaxed physical security
C. the source IP address may have been spoofed
D. a sniffer could be on the network
Answer: C

IISFA   certification II0-001   II0-001 examen   II0-001

NO.11 .The term "Browser Artifacts" refer to:
A. Web browser cache, cookies, favorites, history, auto complete information
B. Older web browser applications that have little or no security and allow for
unchecked use
C. Older web browser applications that can be used as a surveillance tool for
investigators due to their lack of security
D. Web browser cookies
Answer: A

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001

NO.12 .All of the following are methods of auditing except:
A. Internal audit
B. External audit
C. Thorough audit
D. 3rd party audit
Answer: C

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NO.13 .Stream comparison used as a Traceback technique focuses on what two factors?
A. the IP address and victim port
B. the packet contents and audit logs
C. inter-packet timing and the victim port
D. the packet contents and inter-packet timing
Answer: D

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001

NO.14 .In selecting Forensic tools for collecting evidence in the investigation of a crime the
standard for authenticating computer records is:
A. The same for authenticating other records. The degree of authentication does not
vary simply because a record happens to be (or has been at one point) in electronic
form.
B. Much more complex, and requires an expert to be present at each step of the process.
C. To convert the technical terms & definitions into a basic understandable language to
be presented as evidence.
D. To ensure the tools are equipped with logging to document the steps of evidence
collection.
Answer: C

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NO.15 .Which of the following are characteristics of electronic Evidence?
A. Cannot be easily altered
B. Is not time sensitive
C. Should follow proper chain of custody
D. Must be decrypted
Answer: C

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NO.16 ."Interesting data" is:
A. Data relevant to your investigation
B. Pornography
C. Documents, spreadsheets, and databases
D. Schematics or other economic based information
Answer: A

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NO.17 .If a CIFI violates the ISFA code of Ethics, her CIFI certification can be immediately
revoked.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.18 .Embedding a serial number or watermark into a data file is known as:
A. Hashing
B. Steganography
C. Message Digest
D. Imprinting
Answer: B

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NO.19 .What technique of layered security design will allow for both investigation and
recovery after an incident?
A. RI Technology
B. Highly available systems
C. Overlap design approach
D. Honeypot placement
Answer: B

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NO.20 .In normal operation, a host receiving packets can determine their source by direct
examination of the source address field in the:
A. The IP packet header
B. Source code
C. Audit logs
D. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: A

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L'avènement de la certification IBM pratique d'examen 000-732 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-732
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 for z/OS Database Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the following catalog health query? SELECT BNAME, BCREATOR,
BTYPE, DNAME FROM SYSIBM.SYSPLANDEP PD WHERE BTYPE IN ('T', 'V', 'A') AND NOT EXISTS
(SELECT * FROM SYSIBM.SYSTABLES WHERE CREATOR = PD.BCREATOR AND NAME =
PD.BNAME AND TYPE = PD.BTYPE);
A.For every row in SYSTABLES that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be
a corresponding row in SYSPLANDEP.
B.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should
be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
C.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, view, or a table that
has been altered, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
D.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, a table with a
VARCHAR column, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
Correct:B

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NO.2 Which of the following is the correct configuration in a two way DB2 datasharing group?
A.MVSA (DB2A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, active log B, workfile B) Shared BSDS and
catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
B.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active Log B, workfile B)
Shared catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
C.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log A, workfile A, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
D.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log B, workfile B, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
Correct:B

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NO.3 A DBA was examining the Log Statistics, Log Activity section in the OMEGAMON Performance
Expert Tool and noticed a large value in the field UNAVAILABLE OUTPUT LOG BUFF. This is an
important and critical performance metric. What does this performance metric mean?
A.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too large so memory was not
utilized and wasted.
B.The active logs were not stripped by DFSMS and the active log data sets have to be processed
sequentially so many times.
C.The active log data sets were not placed on different volumes to reduce contention so a large amount of
I/O activity showed up in the OUTPUT BUFFER field.
D.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too small so application has to
wait while DB2 was busy writing the Active log data sets.
Correct:D

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NO.4 Which of the following RACF profiles would be used to allow IMS to access DB2 DSN1?
A.DSN1.IMS
B.DSNR.IMS
C.DSN1.MASS
D.DSN1.SASS
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which of the following buffer pool thresholds CANNOT be changed by the DBA?
A.Deferred write threshold (DWQT)
B.Immediate write threshold (IWTH)
C.Vertical deferred write threshold (VDWQT)
D.Virtual buffer pool assisting parallel sequential threshold (VPXPSEQT)
Correct:B

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NO.6 A DBA has been required by a new company policy to implement a new DB2 security method.
The company would like to separate the authorization IDs that can execute plans and packages
from the authorization IDs that can create new plans and packages. Which of the following explicit
system privileges allows the user to create new plans and packages without being able to also
execute them?
A.BINDADD
B.CREATEIN
C.BINDAGENT
D.CREATEDBA
Correct:C

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NO.7 An audit trace shows that TSO user TSOID1, with DBADM authority, is continually attempting to
update a table in DB2 subsystem DSN1 that is not supposed to be updated. Which of the following
will prevent access to the DB2 subsystem?
A.REVOKE DBADM FROM TSOID1
B.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.TSO to NONE
C.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to READ
D.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to NONE
Correct:D

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NO.8 A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no
audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)
B.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5)
C.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA CAPTURE
CHANGES
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which statement best describes how multi-row fetch improves performance?
A.It reduces the amount of programming required.
B.It reduces the number of SQL statements issued.
C.It reduces the amount of data sent over a network.
D.It reduces the amount of I/O required to read a table.
Correct:B

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NO.10 If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT
OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A.The role
B.The schema name
C.The owner keyword
D.The current SQLID (if set)
Correct:A

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NO.11 At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC)
invoked?
A.At DB2 startup.
B.When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C.When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D.During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP
panel.
Correct:A

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NO.12 An application has been running in production for a long time. The size of the objects involved
has not changed, but the application is running much slower than in the beginning. When should
the DBA consider manually REBINDing the application?
A.After REORGing the objects with inline statistics.
B.When dynamic SQL is used, but only after REORG and RUNSTATS has been performed.
C.Actually it is NOT recommended to perform manual rebinds but rather have DB2 perform automatic
rebinds.
D.If the size of the objects has not changed after gathering RUNSTATS data, the access path is very
unlikely to change, and therefore no REBIND is needed.
Correct:A

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NO.13 Which of the following DSNZPARMs is necessary to influence access path selection for certain
queries?
A.STDSQL
B.OPTHINTS
C.PARTKEYU
D.DESCSTAT
Correct:B

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NO.14 An end-user indicates that the DRDA client application accessing DB2 for z/OS is very slow.
However, other local applications accessing the same tables are running fine. What would
indicate that this could be a DB2 problem?
A.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 CPU time minus non-nested CLASS 2 CPU time. If the value is high,
it suggests a problem in the DDF address space.
B.Investigate the CLASS 3 suspension time. As class 3 time includes the time that DB2 spends
sending/receiving network messages, a high value is a possible indication that the network is
experiencing a slow-down.
C.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 Elapsed time (ET) minus non-nested CLASS 2 ET. If the value is
high, this can only be caused by spending most time in the application, and therefore the application
should be investigated.
D.Check to see if the DB2 remote connection can become inactive at commit (Type 2 inactive). If not, this
leads to a high non-nested CLASS 1 ET and is likely the cause of the performance problem. Inactive
connections will use less CPU than threads that stay active all the time.
Correct:A

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NO.15 Which parameter in WLM Application Environment controls the # of concurrent stored
procedures that can run in that particular environment?
A.NUMSRB
B.NUMTHR
C.NUMCTK
D.NUMTCB
Correct:D

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.16 A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer
needed. Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?
A.SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B.FREE Package (..)
C.DROP Package (..)
D.DROP PLAN () PKLIST (..)
Correct:B

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NO.17 A DB2 V9 system that is in New Function Mode:
A.cannot fall back.
B.can fall back to Compatibility Mode.
C.can fall back to New Function Mode*.
D.can fall back to Compatibility Mode*.
Correct:D

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.18 A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT "ERP1" and ROLE "ERP_ROLE" as a security mechanism
to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects (databases, table spaces, tables,
indexes, views, plans and packages) have been created by that ROLE. The ROLE "ERP_ROLE"
has been assigned to User ID "DBA01" in order to perform DBA related tasks. When the user
"DBA01" leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed. Which of the following statements
are correct? (Select two answers)
A.None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B.The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C.When removing user "DBA01" privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D.Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes and views need to be recreated and the
privileges re-granted.
E.To remove the privileges of user "DBA01" on these related plans and packages, they have to be
dropped and as a result all associated privileges are revoked.
Correct:A C

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.19 There are dynamic SQL statements running in a subsystem that need to have their host
variables reoptimized at run-time, however the distribution of the values does not change very
much between execution. What is the most optimal bind parameter for these statements?
A.REOPT(NONE)
B.REOPT(ONCE)
C.REOPT(VARS)
D.REOPT(ALWAYS)
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.20 Given the following RUNSTATS utility statement: RUNSTATS TABLESPACE
DB2CERTDB.MYTBLSPC1 TABLE (MYTABLE1) COLUMN(ALL) INDEX REPORT YES UPDATE ALL
HISTORY ALL which of the following statements is true?
A.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of all indexes on table MYTABLE1.
B.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index on table MYTABLE1.
C.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
D.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
Correct:D

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Le plus récent matériel de formation IBM 000-446

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Code d'Examen: 000-446
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Content Manager OnDemand for i5/OS)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 An Advanced Function Printing Data stream (AFPDS) report is displayed using the OnDemand
Client.An error message is displayed indicating that the requested font is not found.Which action should
be performed to keep those error message from being displayed in the future?
A.Update the code pages in the ICU Font Library.
B.Repackage the OnDemand Client installation with AFP font support.
C.Update the *.cp files in the FONT\MAPS directory.
D.Update the ICU Data Library with custom conversion tables.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator wants to store a System Log message whenever a user deletes an annotation.The box
in the Application Group Message Logging for Annotation Delete is checked.A test is performed to
validate that messages are being stored as expected.The administrator deletes an annotation and then
queries the System Log for the proper message (Message number 70), but nothing is returned.Which
additional required step should be completed for the proper message to be logged?
A.Annotation delete message logging must be selected for the administrator's userid.
B.The System Log does not have an option to store a message for annotation deletions.
C.Administrator permissions allow annotations to be deleted and so no message is stored.
D.Application Group Messages must be checked in the System Logging section of the System
Parameters.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-446 examen   000-446   000-446   000-446 examen

NO.3 What does a validation string used by OnDemand validate?
A.the load information for the current page
B.the field information for the current page
C.that the current page can be indexed and stored
D.that the current page can be viewed with the logical view
Answer: D

IBM   000-446   000-446   000-446 examen   000-446

NO.4 Which function does the OnDemand server run to allow users to connect to an OnDemand system
through the Client for Windows?
A.the arscnct job
B.the client/server job
C.the arssockd job
D.the DB2 Connect job
Answer: C

IBM   000-446   000-446 examen   000-446   000-446 examen

NO.5 A company would like the ability to notify the security administrator whenever there is a failed log in
attempt by a user.Which series of steps must the company complete to accomplish this goal?
A.Check the Failed Login checkbox in both the System Logging and User Exit Logging sections on the
System Parameters window.
B.Check the Failed Login checkbox in the User Exit Logging section on the System Parameters window.
C.Write a user exit program to send a message to the system administrator and check the Failed Login
checkbox in both the System Logging and User Exit Logging sections on the System Parameters window.
D.Write a user exit program to send a message to the system administrator and check the Failed Login
checkbox in the User Exit Logging section on the System Parameters window.
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-446   000-446   000-446 examen

NO.6 Which two can be used to view data that is output from the AFP2HTML transform? (Choose two.)
A.the AFP2HTML applet
B.the native Web browser
C.the AFP Plug-in
D.the Line Data applet
E.the Adobe Acrobat Reader
Answer: A,B

IBM   000-446 examen   000-446   certification 000-446   000-446

NO.7 A report layout contains multiple account numbers (each containing 10 numeric characters) per page
but there are some inconsistencies when locating account numbers.Often, a description field will overlap
into the account number column.These numbers do not appear sequentially.What can be used to ensure
that the indexer will collect only the account number and not part of the description?
A.Define the field with a mask and offset values
B.Define the field based on a floating trigger
C.Define the field based on a floating trigger with mask values
D.Define the field based on a floating trigger with mask and offset values
Answer: C

IBM   000-446 examen   000-446

NO.8 Which command(s) would be used to delete both the index data and documents stored during the load
process?
A.DLTRPTOND
B.RMVIDXOND and RMVRPTOND
C.RMVRPTOND
D.DLTIDXOND and DLTRPTOND
Answer: C

IBM   000-446   certification 000-446   000-446   000-446   000-446 examen

NO.9 Before using the Report Wizard to define a PDF report, what must be installed on the PC running the
OnDemand Administrative Client?
A.The PDF Indexer
B.Adobe Acrobat
C.Adobe Acrobat Reader
D.The OnDemand PDF Wizard
Answer: B

IBM   000-446   000-446 examen

NO.10 What can be specified when defining a report using the Report Wizard?
A.Segment Date format
B.logical view
C.Postprocessor Parameters
D.Large Object support
Answer: D

IBM   000-446   000-446   certification 000-446

NO.11 A company plans to store a 6500-page document in OnDemand.Which action should be used to view
a few pages in this document at a time?
A.Create a table index.
B.Enable large object support.
C.Use fewer triggers when indexing.
D.Add an application ID to the application group.
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-446   000-446   000-446 examen

NO.12 What must be enabled on the browser for the OnDemand Web Enablement Kit to function properly?
A.cookies
B.active scripting
C.script debugging
D.ActiveX controls
Answer: A

IBM   000-446   000-446 examen   certification 000-446

NO.13 An application group specifies to Migrate Data from cache as "When Data is Loaded".A report is
archived into OnDemand.In addition to the CACHE directory, a copy of the archived report is placed into
which directory?
A.ASMAGGREGATION
B.ASMREQUEST
C.TMP
D.LOAD
Answer: B

IBM   000-446   certification 000-446   000-446   000-446

NO.14 A customer is looking for a way to do a broad search across the entire enterprise for content stored on
their websites, file systems, and DB2 Content Manager.Which product provides this capability?
A.OmniFind
B.DB2 CommonStore
C.DB2 Content Manager
D.WebSphere Information Integrator Content Edition
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-446   000-446

NO.15 An OnDemand administrator has received an error message indicating that journaling needs to be
restarted for the OnDemand database files.Which command would be used to accomplish this task?
A.Select the restart journaling option from the OnDemand Administrative client.
B.Use the RSTONDJRN command.
C.Use the RSTJRNOND command.
D.Run program QRLCSTRJ with parameter PARM(RLC) from the command line.
Answer: D

IBM   000-446   certification 000-446   000-446

NO.16 After installing the OnDemand Web Enablement Kit (ODWEK) software, what must be done before you
can begin configuring the ODWEK initialization file for your operating environment?
A.Configure the HTTP server.
B.Configure the OnDemand server.
C.Configure the client PC.
D.Configure the Web Application Server.
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-446   000-446   000-446 examen

NO.17 A customer intends to store all of its archive data into DR550 or Centera storage devices.Which
statement is true?
A.An OnDemand storage set links directly to a DR550 or a Centera device.
B.TSM cannot be configured to interface with Centera devices.
C.TSM can be configured to interface with DR550 or a Centera devices.
D.OnDemand can write directly to Centera devices; therefore TSM is not required.
Answer: C

IBM   000-446   000-446

NO.18 An OnDemand system administrator runs the STRDSMOND command specifying a specific
application group and sets the RUNASM parameter to *YES.Which statement reflects how ASM will run?
A.ASM will run for all application groups.
B.ASM will run for only the application groups specified for DSM.
C.ASM will fail unless you have named a specific policy to process.
D.ASM will run in the same batch job immediately after STRDSMOND completes.
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-446 examen   certification 000-446   000-446

NO.19 To load data into a TSM controlled data storage device, which attribute must match the OnDemand
storage node attributes defined within a Storage Set?
A.TSM node name and password
B.Copy Group name and password
C.Policy Set name and password
D.Policy Domain name and password
Answer: A

IBM   000-446   000-446   000-446 examen   certification 000-446   000-446

NO.20 To create a default date-range search option for a report to specify the last six months, which task must
be completed?
A.Change the application group default date-range interval.
B.Change the Folder - Field Information default date-range interval.
C.Change the Application - Load Information default date-range interval.
D.Change both the folder and the application default date-range intervals.
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-446 examen   certification 000-446   000-446

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Code d'Examen: 000-M12
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Workplace Content Management)
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

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NO.1 What function does Business Glossary NOT help enterprises achieve?
A. Agree on common business terminology
B. Assign data stewards to manage business terms
C. Create a repository for ALL their corporatemeta data
D. Classify technical objects using accepted terms and definitions
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-M12   certification 000-M12

NO.2 Which of the following cannot be published by WebSphere Information Services Director (WISD)
as a Service?
A. DataStage Jobs
B. Teradata Stored Procedures
C. Federation Queries
D. QualityStage Jobs
Answer: B

IBM   000-M12   000-M12   000-M12 examen   certification 000-M12

NO.3 Are DataStage and QualityStage integrated at the interface, metadata, and engine levels?
A. No. They are only integrated at runtime.
B. Yes. They are integrated for developers at design time, at the engine for runtime, and at themeta data
level for impact analysis and data lineage.
C. No. They still have separate developer interfaces.
D. No. They can invoke each other at run time at the engine level, but have a separatemeta data model.
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-M12   000-M12 examen   000-M12   certification 000-M12   certification 000-M12

NO.4 Which is NOT a benefit of Information Analyzer?
A. Gain insight into your data source
B. Reduce hardware requirements
C. Improve personnel productivity
D. Reduce the time to profile data by 70%
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-M12   certification 000-M12

NO.5 There are many ways to exploit the concept of re-use with DataStage/QualityStage. Which feature
below describes a graphical unit of re-use that can be included in any Job?
A. Graphical Job Sequencer
B. Performance monitor
C. Stage palette
D. Shared Containers
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification 000-M12   000-M12 examen

NO.6 QualityStage delivers higher match rates than other products in the industry for de-duplication and
matching. What is the unique capability of QualityStage that helps QualityStage deliver these higher
match rates?
A. Statistical Pattern Counting
B. Bit level character comparisons
C. Probabalistic Record Linkage
D. Phrase parsing
Answer: C

IBM   000-M12   certification 000-M12

NO.7 Does DataStage have the ability to run a process across multiple machines in a GRID?
A. No.DataStage can only be run on single SMP machines with multiple CPUs
B. Yes.DataStage can run across a grid of homogeneous environments
C. Yes.DataStage can run across a grid that includes Windows, Unix and mainframe processors
D. No.DataStage only runs on one CPU
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-M12   000-M12   000-M12   000-M12 examen

NO.8 What is the goal of the various application Packs that exist for Information Server?
A. Better pricing and installation options
B. To accelerate team development
C. To enhance of source code management
D. To support loading/unloading and data integration with popular packaged applications such as
Oracle Financials, SAP, and JD Edwards
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-M12   certification 000-M12   000-M12   000-M12 examen

NO.9 How does Information Analyzer share meta data and results with the rest of Information Server?
A. Emails are automatically sent to all Information Server users
B. An html page is generated with analysis results
C. Analysis results and notes from data profiling research are saved in themeta data layer of Information
Server and are available for viewing in DataStage and other Information Server tools
D. Automatic RSS publication of analysis results
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-M12   000-M12

NO.10 Can DataStage and Information Server access mainframe (zOS) data sources such as IMS, VSAM,
Model 204 and ADABAS (among others)?
A. No.DataStage can only access local flat files.
B. Yes.DataStage can access any remote source using all the Connectivity capabilities of
Federation Server and Classic Federation, or via connections to partner offerings.
C. No.DataStage can only read data files via ODBC.
D. No.DataStage can only read data files via JDBC.
Answer: B

IBM   000-M12 examen   000-M12   certification 000-M12

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Le plus récent matériel de formation IBM 000-255

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Code d'Examen: 000-255
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Dev.wwIBM Rational appdev-Websphere software v6)
Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 When a developer creates a servlet using the Servlet wizard, what is the purpose of the servlet
name?
A.It is required to be used as the servlet class name.
B.It is used in the default URL mapping.
C.It is used to create an interface to the servlet.
D.It is used for filter mapping.
Correct:B

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.2 Which TWO of the following views allow a developer to see Struts resources organized by their
Struts-specific types?
A.Project Explorer
B.Java Browsing
C.Struts Gallery
D.Struts Explorer
E.Modules
Correct:A D

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.3 What steps MUST be performed to add a Web project to a server?
A.Right-click on the Web project and select Add to Server Configuration. Select the desired server.
B.Right-click on an Enterprise Application project that contains the Web application and select Add to
Server Configuration. Select the desired server.
C.Right-click on the server in the Servers view and select Add and remove projects. Select the Web
project from the Available projects list and click Add.
D.Right-click on the server in the Servers view and select Add and remove projects. Select an Enterprise
Application project that contains the Web application from the Available projects list and click Add.
Correct:D

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.4 A developer wants to import a zip file into a project without expanding the contents of the file.
The Developer should use which of the following File -> Import features?
A.File System
B.Zip file
C.Resource file
D.J2EE Jar file
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.5 A developer is creating a Struts enabled application using the Web Diagram editor. The
resources in the editor that are gray and do not have bold label text are:
A.Private.
B.External.
C.Unrealized.
D.Interfaces.
Correct:C

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.6 Datasources created in the Application Deployment Descriptor editor can be accessed by:
A.Applications running on the server.
B.Applications in the current workspace.
C.Modules contained in the EAR file where the definition is made.
D.J2EE Application client modules accessing the server.
Correct:C

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.7 Which of the following is NOT supported by Page Designer?
A.ASP
B.HTML
C.JSP
D.JavaScript
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.8 A company is designing a Web application. Which TWO of the following technologies provide a
model-view-controller framework?
A.Struts
B.Servlet
C.JSTL
D.JSF
E.SDO
Correct:A D

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.9 In which TWO of the following locations can the context root of a Dynamic Web project be
changed?
A.The Modules page of the Application Deployment Descriptor editor
B.The XML source of the application.xml file
C.From the J2EE dialog of the Properties of the Dynamic Web project
D.The source of the web.xml file
Correct:B C

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.10 A developer customizes the Java perspective and wants to save the changes as the default
perspective that is opened in the workspace. Which of the following actions would be BEST for
the developer to perform?
A.Choose Window -> Save Perspective As and name the new perspective MyJava; Choose Window ->
Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives, select MyJava and click Make Default.
B.Choose Window -> Save Perspective; Choose Window -> Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives,
select Java and click Make Default.
C.Choose Window -> Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives, select Java and click Make Default.
D.Choose Window -> Perspective -> Save Current As Default.
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.11 A developer has imported a new EAR file into a workspace. What is the result of selecting the
Enterprise Application and choosing Run -> Run on Server from its context menu?
A.The Server Selection dialog box is activated.
B.The "Add and remove projects" dialog is activated.
C.The Server Creation wizard is activated.
D.The Enterprise Application runs on the workspace default server.
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.12 A developer wishes to create a project that contains a mix of HTML files, JSP files, servlets, and
Java classes. Which option should the developer choose in the New Project wizard?
A.Dynamic Web Project
B.Static Web Project
C.Java Project
D.Server Project
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.13 A standalone Java application creates a log file without specifying a path name. The log file will
be created in:
A.The product installation directory.
B.The bin subdirectory under the product installation directory.
C.The root directory of the project.
D.The package folder in which the main Java class is located.
Correct:C

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.14 What can a developer do to allow quick access to a particular Help page?
A.In the main menu, click Help -> Bookmark to bring up a list of Help topics, browse to the desired page,
and click Add.
B.In the main menu, click Favorites -> Manage Favorites, and select the desired page from the list of Help
topics.
C.In the Help window, browse to the desired page, and click the Bookmark Document icon in the toolbar.
D.In the Help window, browse to the desired page, and click Favorites -> Add to Favorites from the menu.
Correct:C

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.15 An Enterprise Application project contains multiple Dynamic Web projects. All of the Web
projects use a set of common classes defined in a Java project. The common classes are still
under development and are changing daily. What is the BEST way to make the common classes
available to the Web projects at runtime?
A.Add the Java project as a Web Library Project in each of the WARs.
B.Add the Java project as a Project Utility JAR in the EAR and create a Java JAR Dependency in each of
the Dynamic Web projects.
C.Export the Java project as a JAR file and import it into the WebContent/WEB-INF/lib folder of each of
the Dynamic Web projects.
D.Export the classes of the Java project and import the individual class files into the
WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder of each of the Dynamic Web projects.
Correct:B

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.16 Which TWO of the following can be configured from the Servlets page of the Web Deployment
Descriptor?
A.Filters
B.URL Mappings
C.Initialization parameters
D.Invoker Attributes
Correct:B C

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.17 Which of the following BEST describes perspectives within Rational Application Developer?
A.A perspective is a collection of views that facilitate a particular development role.
B.A perspective can be customized with different editors, depending on the needs of the developer.
C.Perspectives can contain other perspectives.
D.Perspectives are opened as a result of launching external applications.
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.18 What should be done to prevent the Server Selection dialog box from activating when a
developer runs an Enterprise Application from its context menu?
A.Select the "Set server as project default" option from the Server Selection wizard.
B.Select the "Do not prompt" option in the Servers view.
C.Create a new server and select the "Set server as workspace default" option in the Server Creation
wizard.
D.Add the project to the server from the server's context menu.
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.19 Which of the following operations CANNOT be performed via the Insert Custom Tag dialog
when editing a JSP in Page Designer?
A.Import a tag library into the Web project.
B.Add a taglib descriptor to the JSP.
C.Add a tag to the JSP.
D.Add a custom JSP tag to the JSP.
Correct:C

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

NO.20 A developer has a partially complete Web application at the C:\root\webApplication directory. In
order to continue development in Rational Application Developer, what could the developer do?
A.Open a new workspace at C:\root\webApplication.
B.Open a new workspace at C:\root, and create a new Web project called webApplication.
C.From any workspace, create a new Web project, setting the context root to C:\root\webApplication.
D.From any workspace, create a new Web project, and selectively import the files from
C:\root\webApplication.
Correct:D

IBM   000-255 examen   000-255   000-255

Nous assurons seulement le succès de test certification, mais encore la mise à jour est gratuite pour vous. Si vous ne pouvez pas passer le test, votre argent sera 100% rendu. Toutefois, cette possibilité n'est presque pas de se produire. Vous pouvez tout d'abord télécharger le démo gratuit pour prendre un essai.

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Code d'Examen: 000-012
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager V7.1 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two processing files should be reviewed for database size estimation? (Choose two.)
A.job log file
B.AcctCSR.txt
C.yyyymmdd.txt
D.Exceptions.txt
E.CurrentCSR.txt
Answer: AB

IBM   000-012   000-012 examen   000-012 examen

NO.2 What is the maximum number of bytes an account code can contain?
A.8
B.96
C.127
D.unlimited
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-012   000-012   000-012 examen   000-012

NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the Log Files panel displayed in this exhibit, the UnixDB2 process ended with a process failure.
In which step did the failure occur?
A.UnixOS
B.Process
C.Integrator
D.UnixNightly
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-012   000-012

NO.4 Which IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager V7.1 panel is selected to set the Trace Message and
Log Message level?
A.Troubleshooting Transactions Logging
B.Troubleshooting Configuration Logging
C.System Maintenance Transactions Logging
D.System Maintenance Configuration Logging
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-012   000-012   000-012 examen

NO.5 What is the benefit of CSR+ Output as an Integrator output stage?
A.More detailed data is written to the CSR files.
B.Additional aggregation is done for the CSR file.
C.The order of files is optimized for the next step.
D.Index data is added in the header of the CSR record.
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification 000-012   certification 000-012

NO.6 What is the purpose of CPU normalization within IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager V7.1?
A.to not charge for CPU utilization
B.to charge less for CPU utilization
C.to charge more for CPU utilization
D.to charge evenly for CPU utilization
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-012   000-012

NO.7 Which core software for the Web Reporting Server is required to be installed?
A.SQL
B.WebSphere
C.Integrated Solutions Console
D.Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-012   000-012 examen   000-012   000-012 examen   000-012

NO.8 When identifying data sources and corresponding collectors, which collector does a CSV data source
require?
A.WinDisk
B.WinProcess
C.StandardCollector
D.UniversalCollector
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-012   certification 000-012   000-012

NO.9 Using the IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager V7.1 Integrated Solutions Console, where are the
rate tables assigned to the clients in the Client table?
A.Chargeback Maintenance Rates
B.Chargeback Maintenance Clients
C.System Maintenance Users Groups
D.Chargeback Maintenance Rate Groups
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-012   000-012 examen   certification 000-012

NO.10 Using the database collector input, what happens to the selected data during Integrator input
processing?
A.Identifiers and resources are validated.
B.The select output is written into a CSR file.
C.Data fields are mapped to identifiers or resources.
D.Resources with the same identifiers are aggregated.
Answer: C

IBM   000-012   000-012   certification 000-012

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Code d'Examen: 000-438
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Applying Fundamentals of Tivoli Business Automation Mgt2008)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two pieces of information are mapped against functional paths within an organization? (Choose
two.)
A. roles
B. stakeholders
C. requirements
D. responsibilities
E. IBM Tivoli products
Answer: AD

IBM   000-438 examen   certification 000-438   000-438 examen   000-438 examen

NO.2 Which factor is most significant when determining the viability of applications?
A. the number of users of the application
B. end user perception of the application
C. the software vendor's market capitalization
D. the flexibility, supportability, performance and coverage of the application
Answer: D

IBM   000-438   certification 000-438   000-438   000-438 examen

NO.3 In the first meeting with a customer, a half hour is dedicated to the meeting with a hard stop at the end.
The following roles are represented: the CIO, the CTO, a technical network professional, and an
application specialist. What should be the Solution Advisor's first step?
A. after brief introductions, discuss a high-level overview of their needs
B. focus on the CIO and the CTO, assuming there will be time to talk to the other attendees later
C. after brief introductions, have the network professional provide a diagram of the network data flow to
illustrate the problem
D. review the overriding business objective in the first ten minutes and move into a high-level, technical
overview of the solution
Answer: B

IBM   000-438   000-438 examen   000-438 examen

NO.4 A client core business is to supply widgets to the customer. An order desk is located in Florida, where
desktops are used by employees for general Lotus Notes e-mail, Lotus Sametime, and an Order
Application from customers who call in orders by telephone.
The client has a data center located in Oregon. It contains a distributed environment running Lotus Notes
and Lotus Sametime and a distributed environment running JD Edwards EnterpriseOne ERP. It has a
DB2 database on a mainframe that contains their product information and stock, and a distributed
environment that runs the Order Application.
The client has a distribution center in Illinois. It contains a distributed front-end for the Order Application,
which prints orders and allows the distribution center to update the amount of stock. Orders are fulfilled by
the distribution center and mailed directly to the customer. Stock is also received and updated by the
distribution center.
The IT group responsible for the Order Application wants to implement Change Management and target
the Order Application as the first application to manage.
Who are two Order Applications customers? (Choose two.)
A. the distribution center in Illinois
B. customers who call in their orders
C. the mainframe system administrators
D. end users in the order desk environment
E. the Order Application distributed environment system administrators
Answer: BD

IBM examen   000-438   certification 000-438   000-438

NO.5 Before a requirements gathering session with the implementation team for a client project, the
customer liaison presents a list of experts. Later, at the requirements gathering session, it is apparent that
a team member would be a valuable expert for the project. What is the appropriate way to have this
person identified as an expert on the project?
A. begin copying the additional team member on all project communication
B. bypass the identified expert and begin communicating directly with the team member
C. communicate to the customer liaison that the team member has been included as an expert
D. contact the customer liaison, explain the situation, and ask for the appropriate way to have this person
included as an expert
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-438 examen   000-438 examen

NO.6 Which two components of an existing infrastructure should be captured in initial business automation
requirement planning meetings with a client? (Choose two.)
A. Availability Monitoring
B. Performance Management
C. Human Resources Systems
D. Call Management Applications
E. Accounting Management Systems
Answer: AB

IBM   000-438   certification 000-438   000-438

NO.7 Which action is necessary for analyzing the underlying applications supporting a client's legacy
process?
A. contact the vendor for customer support information
B. determine the vendor, revision, and customer subject matter expert of each underlying application
C. determine the best practice implementation recommendations of each underlying legacy application
D. contact the customer subject matter expert to determine possible integration points for integration with
IBM products
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-438 examen   000-438   000-438

NO.8 In Business Automation Management, what are performance, maintainability, and security
requirements considered to be?
A. automations
B. network events zones
C. functional requirements
D. non-functional requirements
Answer: D

IBM   000-438 examen   certification 000-438

NO.9 After business requirements and processes have been identified, which steps are taken to automate
that process?
A. assess the specific steps required, determine critical processes, inform the client
B. determine critical processes, choose a subset of processes for a pilot, inform the client
C. assess the specific steps required, interview business process owners, inform the client
D. define the specific steps of the manual process, understand input and output functions of each step
within the process, determine steps suitable for automation
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-438 examen   000-438   000-438

NO.10 What is a benefit of a single vendor solution?
A. easier to obtain maintenance and support
B. more likely to provide future business automation flexibility
C. greater likelihood of future stability in the business automation
D. easier to adapt new solutions from the Open Source community
Answer: A

IBM   000-438 examen   000-438

NO.11 Which two steps should be performed after the interviews are completed and all third-party integrations
are identified? (Choose two.)
A. create a hardware solutions guide
B. review the list of client third-party applications
C. identify the relationships with support organizations
D. identify the operational support dashboard methodology
E. review the list of proposed business automation products
Answer: BE

IBM   certification 000-438   000-438

NO.12 A client's support staff and stakeholders are interviewed and pertinent data has been supplied.
Which three steps should be taken to understand the customer business automation goals? (Choose
three.)
A. list the experts related to business automation
B. identify the resource commitment from the client decision makers
C. determine any business automation dependencies in the business
D. define the business dependencies stated by the client's decision makers
E. identify the hardware requirements of the solution as defined by the customer
F. define the operational performance characteristics of the user interface for the solution
Answer: BCD

IBM examen   000-438 examen   certification 000-438   000-438

NO.13 What are the two best ways to identify and prioritize functional requirements for an automation?
(Choose two.)
A. based on personal expertise
B. based on current clients with similar networks
C. based on the client interviews reviewing their pain points
D. based on a clear understanding of the client's business processes
E. based on talking with the operators and asking them what they want
Answer: CD

certification IBM   000-438 examen   certification 000-438   certification 000-438

NO.14 While scheduling the introductory meeting with a company, who should be the client contact for
invitations to the introductory meeting?
A. the technical contact
B. the process manager
C. the customer sponsor
D. the administrative assistant to the process manager
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-438   000-438   000-438   000-438   certification 000-438

NO.15 A telecommunications company configures their network equipment after receiving an order for a new
circuit from one of their customers. What is this an example of?
A. an automation
B. a key performance indicator
C. a low-level business process
D. a high-level business process
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-438   000-438 examen

NO.16 A client has a custom-made management system that they developed in-house that must be
integrated with the business automation solution. What is the correct approach for proving the
integration?
A. prove with an on-site Proof of Concept
B. replace the application with new software
C. re-create in a lab and provide an off-site proof of technology
D. develop the integration as part of the full solution deployment
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-438   certification 000-438   000-438

NO.17 After business automation roles are understood and organizational information is acquired, which
steps are taken to align business automation roles with individual employees?
A. interview individuals, determine responsibilities, document roles
B. interview individuals, determine responsibilities, review with client
C. interview individuals, verify job titles, determine experience, document roles
D. identify individuals, document roles and responsibilities, provide information to client for review
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-438   certification 000-438

NO.18 What is an important factor when deploying a business automation solution into a customer
environment?
A. determine if a business automation solution was previously attempted
B. redefine the current workflows and practices used by the customer for business automation
C. gather the requirements for which business automation solutions will be deployed at a later date
D. set the expectations so that the client's strategic goals are clearly defined and are met by the business
automation solution
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-438   000-438   certification 000-438

NO.19 A consultant is mapping a client business processes to client-identified pain points.
Which method should the consultant use to help the client rank their pain points?
A. build a table with each business process, and associated pain, weighting each on a scale of 1-10 and
review it with the client
B. investigate business type (Telecommunications, Enterprise, Government Agency or Small/Medium
business) and identify organizational structure and size
C. determine how existing business automation processes can be used to alleviate the client pain points
and how those processes will be mapped to take the client requirements into account
D. break down the high-level business processes into low-level component processes and create a
document that shows the relationship between the low-level and high-level business processes
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification 000-438   certification 000-438

NO.20 Which two factors have the greatest impact on the scope and scale of a Business Process
Management solution? (Choose two.)
A. total headcount at each site
B. number of events processed per hour
C. gross e-commerce order volume per day
D. number of DNS names owned by the enterprise
E. number of integration points between subsystems
Answer: BE

IBM   certification 000-438   certification 000-438   certification 000-438   certification 000-438

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Code d'Examen: LOT-957
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Administering IBM Lotus Connections 2.0)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

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NO.1 Before you begin the process of uninstalling a stand-alone Lotus Connections environment, there is a
preferences file that will be is useful if you reinstall Lotus Connections at a later time. Which of the
following files should you consider retaining?
A.wimcfg.xml
B.ResponseInstaller.txt
C.LotusConnections-config.xml
D.lastSessionDefaults.properties
Answer: D

IBM   LOT-957   certification LOT-957   LOT-957

NO.2 Larry was installing Lotus Connections in a Network Deployment model. He had completed installing
Blogs and Communities in two separate server processes in the same profile and placed them into a
managed node. He now wishes to add Activities but is unable to add this feature. Which of the following is
the cause for this issue?
A.It is not supported to run the installer on a managed node
B.He must add another server to the managed node and then install Activities
C.He must uninstall the other features and merge them into a single server process
D.He must first add a server to the managed node, install either Blogs or Communities on this server, and
then change that installation to Activities
Answer: A

certification IBM   certification LOT-957   LOT-957   LOT-957 examen

NO.3 Which of the following is the end result of adjusting the pageSize attribute in the Home page
configuration file from 50 to 500?
A.This will increase the number of widgets allowed on the Home page
B.This will increase the width of the columns on the Home page from 50 to 500 pixels
C.This will increase the number of entries that the indexing process transmits across the network during
the crawling operation
D.This will increase the length of the Home page from half default size to 5 times the default size to fit
more widgets and other Home page content
Answer: C

IBM   LOT-957   LOT-957

NO.4 Baxter was attempting to complete the Tivoli Directory Integrator installation. Upon creating the file
paths for the main and subdirectories, which of the following should he avoid?
A.Make sure the file path does not contain the name Tivoli
B.Make sure all the file paths are not mapped to the temp directory for caching of the directory imports
C.Make sure the installer is not located in the same location the Tivoli Directory Integrator will be installed
D.Make sure the file path in which you create the subdirectory contains directories that have names that
do not contain spaces in them
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification LOT-957   LOT-957   certification LOT-957   LOT-957

NO.5 In the single profile with one server process configuration, the WebSphere Application Server
Integrated Solutions Console is available on which of the following default server processes?
A.Aserver
B.server
C.serverA
D.server1
Answer: D

IBM   certification LOT-957   certification LOT-957   LOT-957

NO.6 The profiles population wizard does not support which of the following?
A.SSL binding
B.Open binding
C.Anonymous binding
D.Authenticated binding
Answer: C

IBM   LOT-957 examen   certification LOT-957   LOT-957   certification LOT-957   LOT-957 examen

NO.7 The user ID of the owner of the database instance to which you want to install the databases must
have privileges to create which of the following?
A.indexes, users, and groups
B.tables, users, and profiles
C.database, tablespace, and tables
D.profiles, databases, and connections
Answer: C

IBM   LOT-957   LOT-957   LOT-957 examen

NO.8 Which of the following LDAP attributes are required for all users when configuring it for use with
WebSphere Application Server?
A.cn
B.uid
C.mail
D.shortname
Answer: C

IBM   LOT-957   LOT-957   certification LOT-957   certification LOT-957

NO.9 Aaron chose not to set up a network deployment and instead installed the Lotus Connections features
into separate profiles. Which of the following must be done to include information about the other
features?
A.Edit the configuration file created for each feature profile
B.Run the Lotus Connections Management Utility and specify the alternate locations
C.Open the wimcfg.xml file for each feature and change the port number so that they do not conflict with
each other
D.Open the plug-in.properties file for each profile, import the feature from the other profile, and save the
file
Answer: A

certification IBM   LOT-957   LOT-957   LOT-957   LOT-957

NO.10 The ACME Corporation has planned to create multiple database instances for development and
production. It has also chosen to use the provided scripts to install the databases. Which of the following
is true regarding this type of deployment?
A.The company must run the scripts once for each instance
B.The company must run the scripts one time for all instances
C.The company must modify the script to run once on each instance at the same time
D.The company must modify the scripts to create multiple database administrator accounts
Answer: A

IBM examen   LOT-957   LOT-957 examen   LOT-957

NO.11 In order to federate multiple Lotus Connections profiles into a single cell, which of the following should
be utilized?
A.Linked Profile Management
B.Network Deployment Manager
C.Integrated Solutions Profile
D.Profile Configuration Indexes
Answer: B

IBM   LOT-957   LOT-957   LOT-957

NO.12 If you already have WebSphere Application Server configured to use a Standalone LDAP User
Registry, you must change the configuration to utilize which of the following in its place?
A.Local members
B.Virtual members
C.Global directories
D.Federated repositories
Answer: D

certification IBM   LOT-957   LOT-957   LOT-957

NO.13 You can group WebSphere Application Server processes so that you can administer them as a unit.
WebSphere Application Server refers to such a group as which of the following?
A.Units
B.Teams
C.Profile
D.Processors
Answer: C

IBM   LOT-957 examen   LOT-957   certification LOT-957

NO.14 Before creating the Lotus Connections feature databases, the DB2 installation must be registered by
utilizing which of the following?
A.db2reg.lcp
B.db2ese_o.lic
C.db2_init.exe
D.db2license.txt
Answer: B

IBM   LOT-957   LOT-957   LOT-957

NO.15 For each user in LDAP, Tivoli Directory Integrator will map each LDAP attribute or JavaScript function
to the corresponding column in the database. The wizard automatically validates each mapping. Which of
the following does the wizard create in the database for each user?
A.Row
B.Table
C.Column
D.Section
Answer: A

IBM   LOT-957   LOT-957

NO.16 To establish a global unique ID for the LDAP directory, you must modify which of the following files?
A.wimconfig.xml
B.wasLDAP.properties
C.LotusConnectionsprefs.xml
D.LDAPrepositories.properties
Answer: A

certification IBM   LOT-957   LOT-957 examen   certification LOT-957   LOT-957 examen   LOT-957

NO.17 Which file is built while running the Lotus Connections installation in standard mode that can be
utilized later in silent mode when you need an identical installation on several servers?
A.lcsilent.txt
B.LCconfig.xml
C.response.properties
D.ConfigWizard.properties
Answer: C

IBM examen   LOT-957   certification LOT-957

NO.18 At which point in the installation should you enable administrative security and application security?
A.After configuring user repositories
B.Previous to installing any Lotus Connections features
C.Following installation of any Lotus Connections features
D.Before configuring the Home page for users in Lotus Connections
Answer: B

certification IBM   LOT-957 examen   LOT-957 examen

NO.19 Bailey has begun the steps in the Lotus Connections installation to start populating the profiles
database. Which of the following must be configured prior to beginning this step?
A.The profiles database and LDAP server are configured
B.The LDAPconfig.xml and DB2 administrator are configured
C.The security administrator and profiles.properties are configured
D.The Tivoli Directory Integrator and IBM HTTP server are configured
Answer: A

IBM   certification LOT-957   certification LOT-957

NO.20 An administrator can reset a user's password in case of a lost or compromised HTTP password. In
which of the following locations must this be changed?
A.In the Home page
B.In the LDAP directory
C.In the database store
D.In the local Virtual Member Manager
Answer: B

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