2013年12月31日星期二

L'avènement de la certification Microsoft pratique d'examen 70-400 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 70-400
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (TS: Microsoft System Center Operations Manager 2007, Configuring)
Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company has two Active Directory domains. One domain is located in the trusted network. The
other domain is located in the perimeter network. No trust relationship exists between the two domains.
You deploy System Center Operations Manager 2007 in the Active Directory domain on the trusted
network. You manually install the agent on an application server that resides in the Active Directory
domain in the perimeter network. The agent does not appear in the Operations Console. An error event
indicates that the agent is unable to obtain configuration information from the Management Server. You
need to configure Operations Manager 2007 to monitor the agent. What should you do?
A.Disable mutual authentication in the Operations Console.
B.Perform a push installation of the agent to the target server.
C.Configure the agent on the application server to use certificate-based authentication.
D.On the Management Server, configure Auto Agent Assignment settings. Use the MOMADAdmin utility
to publish Management Group information to the Active Directory domain in the perimeter network.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have a System Center Operations Manager 2007 environment. Your company has 10 Microsoft
SQL Server 2005 computers and 5 SQL Server 2000 computers. Currently, you do not receive alerts for
long-running SQL S2005 agent jobs. You need to monitor the job duration of only the SQL 2005 agent
jobs. What should you do?
A.Create an override to enable the Discover SQL 2005 Agent jobs discovery For all objects of type: SQL
2005.Agent.
B.Create an override to enable the Discover SQL 2005 Agent jobs discovery For specific object of type:
SQL 2005 Agent.
C.Create an override to enable the Discover SQL 2005 Agent jobs discovery For all objects of type: SQL
2000.Computers.
D.Create an override to enable the Discover SQL 2005 Agent jobs discovery For specific object of type:
SQL 2000 Agent.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You deploy System Center Operations Manager 2007 in your companys Active Directory domain. You
manually install an Operations Manager agent on an application server named Server1. Server1 is a
member of the Active Directory domain. The agent does not appear in the Pending Management view in
the Operations Console. An error message in the Operations Manager Event log on Server1 indicates
that the agent is unable to obtain configuration information from the Management Server. You need to
ensure that the agent appears in the Pending Management view in the Operations Console. What should
you do.?
A.Select the Review new manual agent installations in pending management view option.
B.Configure the agent on Server1 to use certificate-based authentication.
C.Add the Management Server action account to the local Administrators group on Server1. Restart the
Health Service on Server1.
D.Disable mutual authentication in the Operations Console. Restart the Health Service on Server1.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You install System Center Operations Manager 2007 on all your companys servers. You configure
Operations Manager 2007 to monitor the health status of all applications. The technical support team
reports that they are not receiving e-mail notification when an application fails.
You need to ensure that the technical support team receives e-mail notification when an application fails.
What should you do?
A.Create a new user role that is based on the Advanced Operator profile. Filter a notification subscription
to this new role.
B.Create a new user role that is based on the Operator profile. Filter a notification subscription to this new
role.
C.Enable e-mail notification. Create a new notification subscription based on Alert Aging.
D.Enable e-mail notification. Create a new notification recipient, and then create a new notification
subscription.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have a System Center Operations Manager 2007 environment. You need to schedule a regular
export of your unsealed management packs. What should you do?
A.Create a scheduled task that uses the momcertimport.exe tool.
B.Create a scheduled task that uses the get-managementpack PowerShell commandlet.
C.Create a scheduled task that uses the mpexport.exe tool.
D.Create a scheduled task that uses the mpseal.exe tool.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have a System Center Operations Manager 2007 environment. You are creating a Windows
Performance Counters monitor for % Processor Time. You need to be able to select the All instances
option when you create this monitor. What should you do?
A.Create an aggregated rollup monitor.
B.Create a dependency rollup monitor.
C.Create a static threshold monitor.
D.Create a self-tuning threshold monitor.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have a System Center Operations Manager 2007 environment. You create a custom management
pack that monitors server temperature. You need to automatically shutdown a server if it exceeds a
specific temperature. What should you do?
A.Modify the monitor properties for the server temperature to create a threshold override For all objects of
type: temperature.
B.Modify the monitor properties for the server temperature to create a recovery task that runs the
shutdown.exe /s command.
C.Create an event alert that monitors server temperature. Create an agent task that runs the
shutdown.exe /s command.
D.Create an event alert that monitors server temperature. Create a console task that runs the
shutdown.exe /s command.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You install System Center Operations Manager 2007 parallel with your Microsoft Operations Manager
(MOM) 2005 monitoring environment. You convert a MOM 2005 management pack to a file named
Custom07.xml. You need to identify whether the Custom07.xml file is in the correct Operations Manager
2007 format. What should you do?
A.Import Custom07.xml into Operations Manager 2007.
B.Edit Custom07.xml to remove MOM 2005 references.
C.Run the MPVERIFY custom07.xml command on the Operations Manager 2007 server.
D.Run the MPCONVERT custom.mp custom07.xml command on the MOM 2005 server.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have a System Center Operations Manager 2007 environment.
Your company hosts multiple Web sites for other companies. You provide dedicated Web servers for each
company. You allocate a specific range of IP addresses for each companys group of Web servers. All
Web sites are hosted on Microsoft Windows Server 2003 computers that are running Internet Information
Services (IIS) 6.0.
You create a user role for each companys webmaster.
You need to limit the Operations Manager console access of each companys webmaster to that
companys servers. You need to maintain this limited access even when new servers are added.
What should you do?
A.Create an Operations Manager group for each company. Populate the group with explicit members
based on specific server names. For each company, add the new group to the user role for that company.
B.Create an Operations Manager group for each company. Populate the group with dynamic members
based on the IP address range. For each company, add the new group to the user role for that company.
C.Create a single Operations Manager group. Populate the group with dynamic members based on the IP
address ranges for all companies. For each company, add the new group to the user role for that
company.
D.Create an Operations Manager group for each company. Populate the group with explicit members
based on each specific server IP address. For each company, add the new group to the user role for that
company.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Your company deploys System Center Operations Manager 2007 agents as part of a computer image.
You join all computers in the company to the corporate Active Directory domain. You need to ensure that
agents automatically obtain settings from the corporate Active Directory domain at startup. Which two
actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A.Use the MOMADAdmin utility to publish Management Group information to the corporate Active
Directory domain.
B.Run the Discovery Wizard. Perform automatic computer discovery to scan Active Directory for installed
agents.
C.Configure Auto Agent Assignment on the target Management Server to assign desired computers to the
target Management Server.
D.Configure an Active Directory Group Policy object (GPO) to publish Management Group information to
computers in the corporate Active Directory domain.
Answer: AC

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NO.11 You deploy System Center Operations Manager 2007 at your company. The company has three
Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 computers. You need to ensure that the Exchange administrators are
able only to override the configuration of rules and monitors. What should you do?
A.Create a user role that is based on the Author profile. Add the Exchange administrators to this new role.
B.Create a user role that is based on the Advanced Operator profile. Add the Exchange administrators to
this new role.
C.Add the Exchange administrators to the Operations Manager Operators user role.
D.Add the Exchange administrators to the Operations Manager Administrators user role.
Answer: B

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NO.12 You have a System Center Operations Manager 2007 environment. You need to list all the processes
that are running on one of the Microsoft SQL Server computers. The collection should occur only when
the SQL Server state changes to unhealthy. You need to collect theinformation even if there is no
administrator present. What should you do?
A.Run the List Processes task.
B.Run a PowerShell script that will return all processes.
C.Create a diagnostic task for the affected SQL Server monitor. Use the tasklist.exe command and the
default options.
D.Create a rule by using the Timed Commands template. Specify the tasklist.exe command, and use the
default options.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You have a System Center Operations Manager 2007 environment. You configure notification
subscriptions to send e-mail alert notifications to separate Active Directory, Exchange Server, and SQL
Server support teams when errors occur. You need to reduce the number of characters that are displayed
in the e-mail notification for all alerts. What should you do?
A.In the Notification settings, modify the default notification format for instant messages.
B.In the Notification settings, enable Short Message Service (SMS) notifications.
C.In the Notification settings, modify the default notification format for e-mail messages.
D.In the notification subscription for the Active Directory support team, modify the default notification
format for e-mail messages.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Your company has a System Center Operations Manager 2007 environment.
The company has four branch offices, which are connected by a wide area network (WAN). The routers
that connect the branch offices to the main office experience occasional failures. You need to configure
Operations Manager 2007 to discover branch office routers and to monitor for device failure. What
should you do?
A.Perform automatic discovery by using the Computer and Device Management Wizard to add the
branch office routers as monitored objects.
B.Perform advanced discovery by using the Computer and Device Management Wizard to add the
branch office routers as monitored objects.
C.Run the New-CustomMonitoringObject PowerShell commandlet on the Management Server. Use the
Set-ProxyAgent commandlet to set a proxy agent to remotely monitor branch office routers.
D.Run the New-Object PowerShell commandlet on the Management Server. Use the Set-ProxyAgent
commandlet to set a proxy agent to remotely monitor branch office routers.
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have a System Center Operations Manager 2007 environment. You download the Office
SharePoint Server 2007 Management Pack for Operations Manager 2007. You notice that it is a Microsoft
Operations Manager (MOM) 2005 converted management pack. A prerequisite management pack is
required. You need to be able to monitor the Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 servers. What
should you do?
A.Import the MOM 2005 SharePoint 2003 Management Pack.
B.Import the Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services 2003 Management Pack.
C.Import the Microsoft Windows Server Operating System Management Pack.
D.Import the Operations Manager 2007 MOM 2005 Backward Compatibility Management Pack.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-057
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas NBU PureDisk 6.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 Which application is newly supported in version 6.5 of PureDisk?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
B. Microsoft Exchange 2007
C. Oracle 11i DBMS
D. Microsoft Message Queue
Answer: B

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NO.2 How many terabytes of data in PureDisk 6.5 can be stored per content router in the storage pool?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which data has the default size of 128 KB?
A. data object
B. fingerprint
C. segment
D. workflow object
Answer: C

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NO.4 When installing a PureDisk agent, unless you specify a location or department, where does PureDisk
place the client agent?
A. Central SPA location and department
B. Default Agents
C. Unknown location and Unknown department
D. Unknown Agents
Answer: C

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NO.5 Multiple nodes have been configured with the Topology Wizard.
Which script will push out the software to these nodes?
A. install_newStoragePool.sh
B. enc_topology.sh
C. update_topology.sh
D. add_onNode.sh
Answer: A

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NO.6 On which component in the PureDisk architecture does grouping clients with similar data improve
deduplication?
A. storage pool authority
B. metabase server
C. content router
D. repository manager
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which component must be installed within a PureDisk storage pool?
A. workflow controller
B. CIFS interface
C. NetBackup export engine
D. content router
Answer: D

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NO.8 When backing up a new file, which information is sent that describes that file's attributes?
A. metadata
B. path object
C. data object
D. segment data
Answer: A

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NO.9 By default, where does PureDisk provide for data security by encrypting the data?
A. content router
B. storage pool authority
C. client
D. metabase engine
Answer: C

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NO.10 At which component level does PureDisk provide for bandwidth efficiency by deduplicating data?
A. client
B. storage pool authority
C. content router
D. metabase engine
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two components can be added to increase the size of the PureDisk storage pool? (Select two.)
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. client agents
D. NetBackup export engine
E. storage pool authority
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Which key feature of PureDisk 6.5 depends on the client communicating with the storage pool to
determine whether data is already stored?
A. data security and encryption
B. global deduplication
C. fast access to backup data
D. central management
Answer: B

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NO.13 From which two optional locations can PureDisk retrieve user information? (Select two.)
A. Internal LDAP
B. Active Directory
C. System Password File
D. PureDisk Authority Directory
Answer: AB

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NO.14 By default, a storage pool with a single metabase engine is limited to how many clients?
A. 256
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2048
Answer: C

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NO.15 On which three operating systems does NetBackup support running the PureDisk 6.5 deduplication
option? (Select three.)
A. Windows Server 2000
B. Solaris 9
C. Linux
D. HP/UX
E. IBM AIX
Answer: ABC

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NO.16 Which is an optional component that can be installed within a PureDisk storage pool?
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. NetBackup export engine
D. controller
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is created in PureDisk by using an MD5 algorithm?
A. fingerprint
B. data object
C. workflow object
D. segment
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which version of Veritas Volume Manager is included with a PureDisk 6.5 installation?
A. 4.0
B. 4.1
C. 5.0
D. 5.1
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which service can be added to an existing storage pool to increase the amount of data stored in the
environment?
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. metabase server
D. repository manager
E. workflow controller
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which feature does PureDisk enable by using a CIFS interface?
A. direct access to backup data
B. NetBackup integration
C. data security and encryption
D. central management
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-075
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Dashboard report
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.System Events report
ANSWER: B

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NO.2 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.provides a GUI for policy creation
B.detects incidents
C.writes incidents to all detection servers
D.deploys agents to endpoint computers
ANSWER: A

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NO.3 Which component of Microsoft Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) files does Network Discover apply filters
to?
A.individual emails in the .pst file
B.the entire .pst file
C.attachments in the .pst file
D.folders in the .pst file
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 What is a three-tier Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 deployment?
A.two Enforce Servers deployed on the same host as the database
B.three different detection servers deployed on separate hosts
C.Enforce Server and a detection server deployed on the same host as the database
D.Enforce Server, detection servers, and the database deployed on separate hosts
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
ANSWER: A

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NO.6 A policy manager wants to apply policies only to certain employees with a specific classification level.
Which TrueMatch detection method can help accomplish this?
A.Directory Group Matching (DGM)
B.Exact Data Matching (EDM)
C.Described Content Matching (DCM)
D.Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
ANSWER: A

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NO.7 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
ANSWER: AE

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NO.8 What must a system administrator do for Network Monitor filter configuration changes to take effect?
A.recycle VontuManager and VontuMonitorController services on Enforce
B.recycle PacketCapture process on the Network Monitor
C.recycle VontuNotifier service to propagate changes to Network Monitor
D.recycle Network Monitor server from the Server Detail page
ANSWER: D

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NO.9 Which three statements apply to communication between the Enforce Server and detection servers?
(Select three.)
A.By default, the Enforce Server and the detection servers communicate over port 8100.
B.Port 3389 must be open between the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
C.The same port number must be used for all detection servers.
D.The servers can be configured to use any port higher than 1024.
E.IPSec must be configured on the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.10 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a public share with a Marker File
explaining why the document was removed?
A.Network Prevent
B.Network Protect
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: B

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NO.11 What are three benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide that other security technologies or
tools do not? (Select three.)
A.give visibility into where sensitive data is stored
B.give insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identify who has access to sensitive data
D.indicate where sensitive data is being sent
E.measure encryption strength for sensitive data
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.12 Why do companies deploy data loss prevention solutions? (Select two.)
A.to protect their perimeters from external threats
B.to help protect their brands and reputations
C.to prevent employee access to undesirable websites
D.to encrypt sensitive data to ensure secure transmission
E.to reduce the likelihood of data breaches and related costs
ANSWER: BE

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.13 Which three describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select three.)
A.DLP is a company-wide initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by Information Security.
C.DLP is primarily driven by the Incident Response Team.
D.Employee participation is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
ANSWER: ADE

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NO.14 Which three are valid Scanned Content filter types for the Discover File System target? (Select three.)
A.Exclude filter
B.File Size filter
C.Read ACL filter
D.File Owner filter
E.File Date filter
ANSWER: ABE

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NO.15 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Network Monitor
C.Network Prevent
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: D

Symantec   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.16 Which three are examples of confidential data? (Select three.)
A.national ID numbers
B.published press releases
C.health information
D.CAD drawings
E.manufacturing plant locations
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.17 Which database does Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 support for incident and policy storage?
A.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.4
B.any version of Oracle 10g
C.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.1
D.Microsoft SQL Server
ANSWER: A

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.18 What does a data loss prevention solution help an organization identify? (Select three.)
A.employee education opportunities
B.risk of virus infection
C.unprotected content on laptops
D.illegally obtained software on desktops
E.encryption enforcement opportunities
ANSWER: ACE

Symantec examen   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.19 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the Discover Targets
page?
A.Policy
B.Reports
C.Administration
D.Data at Rest
ANSWER: A

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NO.20 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the System Events
report?
A.Reports
B.Policy
C.System Health
D.Administration
ANSWER: D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-12W
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Windows (STS))
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which characteristic must an application have in order to be managed by Veritas Cluster Server?
A. It must be re startable to ~ known state after failure and tattover.
B. It must be startable by a user other than the system account.
C. It must be a stateless application.
D. It must be capable of running on all systems simultaneously.
Answer:A

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NO.2 Several application service groups require their own virtuallP addresses to share a single NIC on each
system in a cluster. Which agent reduces the overhead associated with monitoring the NIC’ s
status?
A. proxy
B. MultiNICB
C. NIC
D. phantom
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are designing a high availability solution for an important new application and you are in the
process of identifying single points of failure in the design. What are two possible single points of failure
that can be addressed by Veritas Cluster Server? (Choose two.)
A. network
B. stor~ge
C. processors
D. memory
E. environment
Answer:A,B

Symantec   ST0-12W   ST0-12W   ST0-12W

NO.4 Four servers available for clustering are located in two buildings. Each building contains two servers
and the servers are on the same network. There are two disk arrays to which all four servers have shared
data access. Which type of cluster topology is required?
A. campus cluster
B. global cluster
C. shared nothing cluster
D. split brain cluster
Answer:A

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NO.5 You are tasked with making an existing production system highly available with Veritas Cluster Server.
You have already verified that the hardware is compatible with Veritas Cluster Server. You are now
evaluating the software on the systems for Veritas Cluster Server compatibility.
What must be verified for Veritas Cluster Server compatibility?
A. the oper~ting system version
B. the volume management software version
C. the NIC driver version
D. the file system version
Answer:A

Symantec   ST0-12W examen   ST0-12W   ST0-12W

NO.6 Where are configuration changes maintained in a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster?
A. memory on ~II systems
B. disk on all systems
C. memory on quorum system
D. disk on quorum system
Answer:A

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NO.7 You are modifying the cluster configuration while the cluster is stopped. You have edited and verified
the main.cf file on system SysA. Which command do you use to start the cluster with the new
configuration on system SysA?
A. hastart
B. haclus -rebuild .Imain .cr
C. hasys ?start SysA
D. hareconfig
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which Symantec product feature or attribute allows for the same application to be started
simultaneously on different systems?
A. parallet service groups
B. Veritas FlashSnap
C. the online local dependency
D. the parallelstart group attribute
Answer:A

Symantec examen   certification ST0-12W   ST0-12W

NO.9 What are two valid settings for the ManageFaults service group attibute? (Choose two.) A . All
B. None
C.Priority
D. MonitorOnly
E. Manual
Answer: A,B,

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NO.10 What is the Veritas Cluster Server service that maintains resource configuration and state
information?
A. h~d
B. hastate
C. haconf
D.hacf
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which command do you use to change a service group attribute in a running cluster?
A. h~grp ?modify
B. hagrp ?change
C. hamodify ?group
D. hamodify ?attribute
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which two tasks can be performed to improve the overall fault tolerance of a Veritas Cluster Server
cluster? (Choose two.)
A. connect e ach system in the cluster to separate power sources DB. mirror the os disk of e ach system
in the cluster
C. connect a tape drive to each system in the cluster
D. add a local disk array to each system in the cluster
E. add CPUs to each node in the cluster
Answer:A,B

Symantec examen   certification ST0-12W   certification ST0-12W   ST0-12W

NO.13 You want to validate operation after installing, configuring, and starting Veritas Cluster Server. Which
two GAB ports should be shown as running? (Choose two.)
A. a
B. c
C. h
D. S
E. V
Answer:A,C

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NO.14 You have one of three systems in a cluster up and running Veritas Cluster Server. When the second
system starts, it finds that it has a valid Veritas Cluster Server configuration file. This configuration is
different than the one on the first system.
What happens?
A. Verltas Cluster Server uses the one from the first system.
B. Veritas Cluster Server uses the one from the second system.
C. Veritas Cluster Server will integrate the files.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will wait for the third system.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which three elements must be moved from the failed server to the takeover server for network users to
resume access to the database when a failover occurs? (Choose three.)
A. the vtrtuat ts address
B. the set of processes
C. the Ethernet address
D. the public key
E. the disk group
Answer:A,B,E

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NO.16 A process is manually shut down to test an automatic failover of a configured Process resource. The
service group then fails over to another system. What should be cleared before bringing the service group
back to the system on which the test was originally conducted?
A. resource
B. attribute
C. cluster
D. system
Answer:A

Symantec   certification ST0-12W   ST0-12W examen   ST0-12W   ST0-12W examen

NO.17 You have two of three systems in a cluster up and running Veritas Cluster Server. When the third
system starts, it finds that it has a valid Veritas Cluster Server configuration file. This configuration is
different than the one on the first two systems.
How does Veritas Cluster Server handle this situation?
A. It will use the configur~tion from the first two systems.
B. It will use the configuration from the third system.
C. It will integrate the files to resolve the differences.
D. The third node will be unable to start.
Answer:A

certification Symantec   ST0-12W   ST0-12W   ST0-12W

NO.18 What are three possible types of Veritas Cluster Server service groups? (Choose three.)
A. Failover
B. Hybrid
C. Parallel
D. Singlenode
E. OnOnly
Answer: A,B,C

Symantec examen   certification ST0-12W   ST0-12W examen   certification ST0-12W

NO.19 What is the Veritas Cluster Server term for how a system joining an existing cluster retrieves the cluster
configuration?
A. remote build
B. local build
C. onetime build
D. initial build
Answer:A

Symantec   ST0-12W   ST0-12W

NO.20 A service group with the FaiioverPolicy set to Priority has a fault and is failing over. The group fail over
to the system with the __ .
A. lowest as siqne d value in the groups SystemList
B. highest assigned value in the groups SystemList
C. lowest number of service groups currently online
D. highest available capacity in the groups SystemList
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-29B
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 MR 4(STS))
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 In which client management log can an administrator identify when the client last connected to the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Control
B. Traffic
C. System
D. Event
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can connect to an embedded database?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. unlimited
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.3 Which two features migrate from previous versions of Symantec AntiVirus? (Select two.)
A.Tamper Protection Settings
B.AntiVirus Settings
C.Uninstall Password
D.Client Group Structure
E.Firewall Settings
Answer: B, D

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NO.4 When using the Push Deployment Wizard, which two methods can be used to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A.browse through Windows networking
B.import a file containing IP addresses
C.specify a UNC path
D.import a file containing MAC addresses
E.import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: A, B

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.5 A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator is importing from an Active Directory
environment. The director needs to know which object types are being imported. Which two object types
are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Select two.)
A.security groups
B.organizational units
C.computers
D.sites
E.domains
Answer: B, C

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B examen   ST0-29B

NO.6 What is the default replication frequency when adding an additional site to a Symantec Endpoint
Protection deployment?
A. 1 hour
B. 8 hours
C. daily
D. weekly
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-29B examen   ST0-29B

NO.7 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged
Detector mode?
A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Network Access Control
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.8 Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security
Manager?
A. register with the manager
B. download the latest policy
C. update virus definitions
D. launch a full system scan
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator needs a TruScan Proactive Threat scan that will detect a potential trojan, worm, or
keylogger as quickly as possible. How should the administrator set the scan frequency?
A. set it to continuous
B. set it to scan new processes immediately
C. select the default setting
D. set it to 5 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.10 Based on Symantec best practices, which two tasks should be performed before migrating from
Symantec AntiVirus Corporate Edition to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select two.)
A.disable Auto-Protect
B.disable scheduled scans
C.disable Tamper Protection
D.scan all clients
E.purge the quarantine
Answer: B, C

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NO.11 Which setting can be enabled to report computers without a Symantec Endpoint Protection Agent?
A. LAN Detector
B. Unmanaged Detector
C. Segment Detector
D. Network Detector
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-29B   certification ST0-29B

NO.12 What can an administrator do to proactively obtain information about unknown devices on a network?
A. script a network audit using the Find Unmanaged Computers feature
B. create an Unmanaged Computer notification
C. schedule an audit report to send to the administrator
D. schedule regular LDAP synchronization
Answer: B

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NO.13 An administrator makes a change in the Active Directory structure, which has been imported into
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). By default, when will the change automatically be
reflected in SEPM?
A. as soon as the change is made in Active Directory
B. maximum 1 hour
C. maximum 4 hours
D. maximum 24 hours
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two actions can the Centralized Exception policy perform? (Select two.)
A.exclude a specific folder from AntiVirus and AntiSpyware File System Auto-Protect scanning
B.specify an exclusion to keep a known risk from being scanned
C.specify machines from which the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console cannot be run
D.exclude forwarding of certain log types from the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
E.specify Intrusion Prevention system signatures for exclusion
Answer: A, B

certification Symantec   ST0-29B examen   ST0-29B

NO.15 If a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) client is installed with AntiVirus and AntiSpyware components
only, what must be done to install the SEP Firewall?
A. redeploy the original installation package to the client
B. deploy the firewall license file to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
C. deploy a new package including the firewall component
D. deploy a firewall policy to that client through an XML file
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which feature can be configured to increase or decrease performance of scheduled scans?
A. scan frequency
B. CPU throttling
C. heartbeat interval
D. tuning options
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.17 Which remediation option is available to administrators using the Find Unmanaged Computers
feature?
A. deploy a Symantec Endpoint Protection client package to the unmanaged host
B. monitor and log network traffic observed from the unmanaged host
C. install Microsoft Windows operating system security patches
D. disable network access pending Symantec Endpoint Protection client installation
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   certification ST0-29B

NO.18 Which two actions are available when TruScan Proactive Threat Scan detects a trojan or worm?
(Select two.)
A.delete
B.ignore
C.terminate
D.quarantine
E.clean
Answer: C, D

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NO.19 An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows
2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?
A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection
B. Proactive Threat Protection
C. Apache Tomcat Server
D. Central Quarantine Server
E. Network Threat Protection
Answer: C

Symantec   certification ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.20 Which file contains the Symantec Endpoint Protection client communication settings?
A. GRC.dat
B. Sylink.xml
C. GRC.xml
D. Sylink.dat
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-100
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Domino Technical)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 Symantec Enterprise Vault sites are grouped under which Symantec Enterprise Vault container?
A. Directory
B. Targets
C. Archives
D. Domains
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a benefit of archiving Domino user mail files?
A. makes email highly available
B. provides a compliance copy of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
Answer: D

Symantec examen   certification ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.3 What are two primary physical data-storage components of Domino Mailbox Archiving in
Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. IIS configuration data
E. Shopping Basket
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What tool can be installed to check that all pre-requisites have been correctly configured?
A. Enterprise Vault Compatibility Checker
B. Enterprise Vault Deployment Scanner
C. SystemCheck.exe
D. Microsoft System Information tool
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are two reasons for adopting Symantec Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content?
(Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Did you participate in formal Symantec training for this exam? If so, please select the type of training
that you completed. (Select all that apply.)
A. Instructor-led classroom
B. Virtual instructor-led classroom
C. eLearning / web-based training
D. Symantec-hosted webcast
E. Distributor or reseller-hosted webcast
F. Field / Real-world experience
G. Other
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 A user is unable to log in to search the archived mail. Which step can be taken to correct the problem?
A. re-enable the mailbox
B. refresh the design
C. reset the Internet password
D. reset the Domino password
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company will have five Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) sites and three EV Directories. How many
Monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which process requires that the Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway (EVDG) be installed in the
environment?
A. Mailfile archiving
B. Lotus Notes access to archived items
C. Enterprise Vault Administrator access to Domino configuration
D. Journal archiving
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two of the following are created by the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration wizard? (Select
two.)
A. Index locations
B. Vault Directory database
C. Services on the Enterprise Vault server
D. Domino archives
E. Vault store databases
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 What should be done before running the Enterprise Vault Reports Configuration tool?
A. create the Enterprise Vault Reporting SQL database
B. stop IIS
C. add the Vault Service Account to the DomainAdmins group
D. create an ordinary Active Directory user account to be used by Enterprise Vault Reporting
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two additions are made to the notes.ini of the Symantec Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway
(EVDG) server after installing Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. ServerTasks=EVDominoHousekeeping
B. ServerTasks=EVDominoEM
C. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoEM.dll
D. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping.dll
E. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 Which two Symantec Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company
to maintain information? (Select two.)
A. data compression
B. collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. storage on WORM devices
E. item conversion to HTML
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Which two SQL databases are directly associated with storage in Symantec Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which connection type is used to archive messages from mail files?
A. IMAP
B. NRPC
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which action is necessary to run DTrace from within the Vault Administration Console?
A. enable Traces from the Site Properties
B. enable debug from the Site Properties
C. install DTrace.exe on the Symantec Enterprise Vault server
D. enable Advanced Features
Answer: D

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NO.17 When the Deployment Scanner is used for troubleshooting a Symantec Enterprise Vault
environment, which two of these tests are performed? (Select two.)
A. mail file permissions
B. Domino server permissions
C. registry settings
D. Domino server versions
E. Domino template versions
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 After running the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration Wizard, which of these services are running
when viewed from the Vault Administration Console? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Vault Indexing Service
B. Enterprise Vault Administration Service
C. Enterprise Vault Directory Service
D. Enterprise Vault Domino Archiving Service
E. Enterprise Vault Task Controller Service
Answer: A,E

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NO.19 Which two are prerequisites for installing Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) Reporting? (Select two.)
A. grant dbreader rights in Microsoft SQL server to the default EV Domino Admin role
B. install Microsoft Active Server Pages .NET 3.0 SP3 on the EV server
C. install Microsoft SQL Reporting Services on the SQL Reporting server
D. give the Vault Service Account the Content Manager role on the Microsoft SQL Reporting server
E. add the Vault Service Account to the Local Administrators group on the SQL Reporting server
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 Implementation of Symantec Enterprise Vault follows a specific sequential process after prerequisites
are met. The first three steps in this process include: run the Deployment Scanner, run the Software Install,
and run the Configuration Wizard. What is the fourth step in the process?
A. run the Domino Configuration Wizard
B. run the Getting Started Wizard
C. run the Archiving Configuration Wizard
D. run the Provisioning Wizard
E. run the Storage Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-097
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

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NO.1 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.3 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.4 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.8 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.10 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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NO.13 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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NO.15 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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NO.16 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.18 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.19 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.20 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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