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Code d'Examen: 9A0-019
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Photoshop 6.0 Product Proficiency)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 A layer contains a shape filled with a solid color. You want to fill the shape with a gradient. What should
you do?
A. select the shape layer and choose a gradient from the Swatches palette.
B. Select the gradient tool from the toolbox. select a gradient from the options bar, and drag the gradient
tool across the shape
C. Select the shape layer; click the Layer Style button on the Layers palette and select
Gradient Overly; choose a gradient and click OK
D. Select the shape layer; click the New Adjustment Layer button on the Layers palette and select
Gradient Map. choose a gradient and click OK
Answer: C

Adobe   certification 9A0-019   9A0-019 examen   9A0-019

NO.2 Which format supports layers in Adobe Photoshop?
A. JPG
B. TIFF
C. PICT
D. EPS
Answer: B

certification Adobe   certification 9A0-019   9A0-019

NO.3 You make a selection by using the magnetic lasso tool you want modify the selection. Which tool or
tools can you use to modify the selection?
A. any selection tool
B. only the magnetic lasso
C. lasso, magnetic lasso or polygonal lasso
D. any selection tool except the magic wand
Answer: A

Adobe   9A0-019   9A0-019   9A0-019 examen   9A0-019

NO.4 Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
A. Paintbrush
B. Distort Filter
C. Free Transform
D. Levels Adjustment
Answer: C

Adobe examen   9A0-019   9A0-019 examen   9A0-019   9A0-019 examen

NO.5 What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette
Answer: CD

certification Adobe   certification 9A0-019   certification 9A0-019

NO.6 Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background
Answer: B

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NO.7 If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it
overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer
Answer: B

Adobe examen   9A0-019   9A0-019 examen   9A0-019 examen

NO.8 You want to randomly display7% of the pixels on a layer. What should you do? A. set the layer opacity
to7% and the layer's blending mode to Dissolve
B. set the layer opacity to7% and the layer's blending mode to Difference
C. apply the Pointillize file then choose the Fade command with7% opacity
D. apply the Fragment filter then choose the Fade command with7% opacity
Answer: A

Adobe   certification 9A0-019   9A0-019

NO.9 Exhibit.
You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the
pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer. with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer. with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down
C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
Answer: C

Adobe examen   certification 9A0-019   9A0-019   certification 9A0-019

NO.10 Which file format supports spot color channel?
A. PICT
B. JPEG
C. Gif89a
D. DCS 2.0
Answer: D

Adobe   certification 9A0-019   9A0-019   9A0-019   9A0-019

NO.11 Which blending mode should you use to create a drop shadow?
A. Multiply
B. Dissolve
C. Difference
D. Color Burn
Answer: A

Adobe   certification 9A0-019   certification 9A0-019

NO.12 You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a
new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask
Answer: B

Adobe examen   9A0-019   9A0-019   9A0-019

NO.13 You make a selection with the polygon lasso tool. When a color fill is applied, the edg appears rough.
Which tool option should have been selected to soften the selection edg.
A. Blur
B. Border
C. Smooth
D. Anti-Alised
Answer: D

Adobe   9A0-019 examen   9A0-019 examen

NO.14 Exhibit.
You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you
PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state
Answer: D

Adobe   9A0-019   9A0-019

NO.15 You are making selection by using the elliptical marquee. The value for Feather is set10 pixels. When
would you see the effect of the feathering option?
A. When you deselect
B. When you choose Select>Feather
C. When you move the selected pixels
D. As soon as you finish making the selection
Answer: C

Adobe   9A0-019 examen   9A0-019   certification 9A0-019   9A0-019 examen

NO.16 What is the most efficient thod to isolate a complex object form is background?
A. create a layer mask
B. create an alpha channel
C. use the Extract Image command
D. use the lasso tool to create a selection
Answer: C

certification Adobe   9A0-019   9A0-019 examen   9A0-019   9A0-019 examen

NO.17 You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within
the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?
A. None
B. Folder
C. Import
D. Save and Close
Answer: B

Adobe examen   9A0-019   9A0-019   9A0-019 examen

NO.18 Exhibit.
You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the
Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
Answer: AD

Adobe   9A0-019   9A0-019 examen

NO.19 When creating animations in Adobe ImageReady, what does the Tween feature do?
A. It specifies looping for playback.
B. It specifies repeat options for playback.
C. It adds a series of layers between existing layers.
D. It adds a series of frames between existing frames.
Answer: D

Adobe   certification 9A0-019   9A0-019   9A0-019

NO.20 You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be
affected by the adjustment layer?
A. layers above the adjustment layer
B. layer below the adjustment layer
C. only layers included in the same layer set
D. only layers linked with the adjustment layer
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-152
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe After Effects CS5 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 You have added a composition to the Render Queue, chosen an Output Module, and clicked Render.
How do you view how much time it is taking to render each frame of me composition?
A. twirldown me Current Render m the Render Queue panel, and look underRendering > Layer
B. go to Preferences > Display and select ShowRendering Progress in Info Paneland Flowerchart
C. twirldown me Current Render in the Render Queue panel, and loot under Frame Time >Average
D. calculate thevalues between the Estimated Remain timeand the startingtime of me render, and
drivebytheamount offrames inyour comp
Answer: C

Adobe examen   certification 9A0-152   certification 9A0-152

NO.2 Which two features are supported when you render a movie using the OpenGL render engine?
(Choose two.)
A. Layer Styles
B. 2D motion blur
C. Particle effects
D. Intersecting 3D layers
E. Shininess property settings for 3D layers
Answer: A,B

certification Adobe   9A0-152   9A0-152

NO.3 You have imported a video clip of unknown size and duration. You have heighted the clip in the Project
panel. What should you do to create a composition that will automatically be the right size and duration?
A. choose File > Add Footage to Comp
B. choose Composition > New Composition
C. choose File > New Comp from Selection
D. choose Composition > Add to Render Queue
Answer: C

Adobe   certification 9A0-152   9A0-152   9A0-152 examen   9A0-152 examen

NO.4 What happens when you insert a dynamically-liked composition into a Premiere Pro timeline, and play it
back within Premiere Pro?
A. You see a black frame until you render it or create a RAM preview inside After Effects.
B. Premiere Pro must render the linked composition before generatingreal-time playback
C. Premiere Pro can play back the comp in real-time, without the need to render it side After Effects.
D. After Effects renders the linked composition on a frame-by-frame basic during playback in Premiere
Pro.
Answer: D

Adobe   certification 9A0-152   certification 9A0-152

NO.5 How do you quickly invoke the composition navigator flowchart?
A. press U
B. press F10
C. tap the Shift key
D. tap the space bar
Answer: C

Adobe   9A0-152   9A0-152

NO.6 Which two statements about importing native R3D (RED) files into After Effects are true? (Choose
two.)
A. The REDSource Settings color adjustments don't preserve overbright values.
B. R3D Files are interpreted as containing 32-bpc colors in a non-linear
C. Exposure can be manipulated only in the footage interpretation stage, in the RED R3D Source Settings
dialog box bar
D. The R3D pixelaspect ratio cannot be modified in the footage interpretation stage
E. Only half and quarter resolution are supported
Answer: A,B

Adobe examen   9A0-152 examen   9A0-152 examen   9A0-152 examen

NO.7 You have been asked to render a sequence of frames in 32bpc. Which two formats allow you to do this?
(Choose two)
A. RLE
B. TIFF
C. JPEG
D. Targa
E. Cineon
Answer: B,E

Adobe examen   9A0-152 examen   9A0-152   certification 9A0-152   9A0-152

NO.8 You have opened a template project and made various changes to it. Which is the most efficient way to
save it as a new template for future use?
A. Choose File > Save As, and replace the current project file
B. Choose File > Increment And Save to create a new copy
C. Choose File > Save a Copy as XML to create a new copy
D. Choose File > Save, and rename the filename using the .aet extension
Answer: C

Adobe   9A0-152 examen   certification 9A0-152   certification 9A0-152

NO.9 You want to disable thumbnails in the Project in the Project panel to conserve system resource in a
large project. Which option in the After Effects Preferences dialog lets you complete this task?
A. General
B. Display
C. Previews
D. Appearance
Answer: B

Adobe   9A0-152   9A0-152   9A0-152 examen   certification 9A0-152

NO.10 What is the purpose of the command Composition > Pre render?
A. to render a RAM review of the composition
B. to render and save the RAM preview to disk
C. to render and create a Disk Cache preview of the composition
D. to addthe composition to the render queue with the Post Render Action set to Import and Replace
usage.
Answer: B

Adobe   9A0-152 examen   9A0-152 examen   9A0-152

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Code d'Examen: MAYA11_A
Nom d'Examen: Autodesk (Maya 2011 Certified Associate)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a way to control deformations using a Smooth Bind?
A. Add Influence
B. Flexors.
C. Projection Box.
D. Both A and B
Answer: B

Autodesk examen   MAYA11_A   MAYA11_A   MAYA11_A

NO.2 Which of the following BEST describes the Blend Shape deformer?
The Blend Shape deformer...
A. creates a joint system based on the topology of the surface
B. allows you use several target shapes to help reshape another piece of geometry.
C. is a special object you use to control the deformation effects of rigid skinning.
D. lets you manually sculpt NURBS, polygons, or Subdivision surfaces quickly with the stroke of a brush
Answer: B

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NO.3 To composite two layers together you would use...
A. Composition settings
B. Garbage Mask
C. Remap Color
D. Blend & Comp
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the syntax to add a single-line comment in a script.?
A. //
B. <>
C. "
D. ==
Answer: A

Autodesk   MAYA11_A   MAYA11_A   MAYA11_A

NO.5 The ViewCube is an on-screen 3D navigation element that does which of the following?
A. Creates a multicamera rig to navigate through your scene
B. Provides feedback about stereo cameras and performs calculations to produce anaglyph images
C. Enables you to quickly and easily switch between views.
D. Provides feedback about the current camera view in relation to the 3D scene
Answer: D

Autodesk   MAYA11_A   MAYA11_A   MAYA11_A   MAYA11_A

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Code d'Examen: MAYA11-A
Nom d'Examen: Autodesk (Maya 2011 Certified Associate)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 What is meant by 'sampling'?
A. The amount of Rendering Layers to be calculated in an image
B. The amount of times the software will examine different areas of a pixel
C. The number of photons that get emitted into the scene.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

Autodesk   MAYA11-A   MAYA11-A   MAYA11-A   MAYA11-A examen

NO.2 Which file format lets you exchange complex data between Maya and other software while
preserving the data's overall behavior?
A. OBJ
B. FBX
C. DXF
D. None of the above
Answer: B

Autodesk   MAYA11-A examen   certification MAYA11-A   MAYA11-A

NO.3 Which of the following BEST describes the Blend Shape deformer?
The Blend Shape deformer...
A. creates a joint system based on the topology of the surface
B. allows you use several target shapes to help reshape another piece of geometry.
C. is a special object you use to control the deformation effects of rigid skinning.
D. lets you manually sculpt NURBS, polygons, or Subdivision surfaces quickly with the stroke of a
brush
Answer: B

Autodesk   certification MAYA11-A   MAYA11-A

NO.4 What modes can you work in when modeling with Subdivision surfaces?
A. Polygon mode and NURBS mode
B. Standard mode and Polygon mode.
C. Standard mode and Coarser mode.
D. NURBS mode and Component mode.
Answer: B

Autodesk   MAYA11-A examen   MAYA11-A

NO.5 What does the nConstraint Membership Tool for nCloth allows users to do?
A. Add vertices to a selected dynamic constraint
B. Remove vertices from a selected dynamic constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Neither of the above.
Answer: C

Autodesk   certification MAYA11-A   MAYA11-A examen   MAYA11-A   MAYA11-A   MAYA11-A

NO.6 How is a Soft Body different from a Rigid Body?
A. Afield can't be connected to Soft Body particles.
B. Rigid Bodies can't be affected by a Dynamic constraint.
C. A Soft Body can be keyframed using the Set Active Key command.
D. Rigid Bodies don't deform.
Answer: D

Autodesk examen   MAYA11-A examen   MAYA11-A   MAYA11-A

NO.7 What effect does the Break Tangent action have on a selected animation tangent?
A. Allows manipulation of the in and out tangent handles individually so you can edit the curve
segment entering or exiting the key without affecting its opposite handle.
B. Causes the manipulation of an in or out tangent handle to affect its opposite handle equally
C. Specifies that when you move a tangent, only its angle can be changed.
D. Specifies that when you move a tangent its angle and weight can be changed.
Answer: A

Autodesk   MAYA11-A   MAYA11-A examen

NO.8 Which is the correct method to make the current transformations on the selected object be
the object's zero position
A. Edit>Delete option
B. Modify>Freeze Transformations option.
C. Modify>Delete Attribute Transformations option.
D. Skeleton>OrientJoint>Freeze Transformations option
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: I40-420
Nom d'Examen: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )
Questions et réponses: 249 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT an example of the purpose of a function point count?
A. To enable comparison of functionality delivered by two applications
B. To determine maintenance support cost per function point
C. To understand the percentage of lines of code that is being reused across three different applications
D. To determine the effort and duration of a development project
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about an External Input is true?
A. Has the primary intent to maintain one or more ILFs
B. An elementary process to hold data or control information from outside the boundary
C. Has the primary intent to alter the behavior of a transaction
D. Has the primary intent to reference one or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.3 An example of the purpose of an FP count is to provide:
A. input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort to develop the first release of an
application
B. a comparison of functionality delivered by two different suppliers' packages
C. determine the size of an application as part of the organization's effort to determine the size of its
software portfolio
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 An EI is defined as:
A. an elementary process that processes data sent from outside the application boundary
B. control information sent from outside the user view
C. an elementary process that processes data or control information sent from outside the application's
boundary
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a (are) valid example(s) of code data?
A. Substitution data
B. Static data
C. Valid values
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is an attribute used to represent relationships of one entity to another.?
A. Primary key
B. Secondary key
C. Foreign key
D. Domestic key
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements regarding the counting scope is true?
A. It defines the set of Functional User Requirements to be included in the FP count
B. It always includes more than one application
C. It determines the purpose of the applications being counted
D. It defines a (sub) set of the modules being sized
Answer: A

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NO.8 "Requirements specifically requested by the user to complete an elementary process" defines which of
the following terms?
A. Control information
B. Processing logic
C. Maintain
D. User identifiable
Answer: B

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NO.9 When counting DETs which of the following rules apply?
A. Count a DET for each recursive field on the ILF or EIF
B. Count a DET for each piece of data in an ILF or EIF required by the user to establish a relationship with
another ILF or EIF
C. Count a DET for each repeating field that is identical in format
D. Count a DET for each field that appears more than once in an ILF or EIF
Answer: B

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NO.10 Control information is defined as data that:
A. defines an elementary process of the application being counted
B. influences an elementary process of the application being counted
C. controls an elementary process of the application being counted
D. does not influence an elementary process of the application being counted
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is true about conversion functionality?
A. Transactional or data functions provided to convert data and /or provide other user specified
conversion requirements
B. Exists only during the development or enhancement of an application
C. Conversion functionality is outside the scope of FP counting
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is an elementary process?
A. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
B. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
C. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
D. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
Answer: C

IFPUG examen   I40-420   I40-420   I40-420

NO.13 Which category (ies) of data entities is (are) usually identified to satisfy the Functional User
Requirements?
A. Business data
B. Reference data
C. Code data
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following statements regarding functional size measurement is true?
A. Early functional size measurements can never change during design and coding phase
B. It is quite normal to identify additional functionality that was not specified in the original requirements in
the form of scope creep
C. It is not necessary to update the application functional size upon completion of an enhancement.
D. Both B and C
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is NOT true of a boundary?
A. It encloses the logical data maintained by the application
B. It is the physical interface between the software under study and its users
C. It is dependent on the user's external business view of the application and is independent of technical
and/or implementation considerations
D. It defines what is external to the application
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is a user identifiable group of logically related data or control information referenced by the
application, but maintained within the boundary of another application?
A. An ILF
B. An IIF
C. An EIF
D. An ELF
Answer: C

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NO.17 The primary intent of an EI is to maintain:
A. One or more ILFs or alter the behavior of the application
B. One or more ILFs
C. One or more EIFs or alter the behavior of the application
D. One or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding an application functional size (FS)?
A. It provides a measure of the functionalities that an application provides to the user
B. It is never updated after the initial application installation
C. It is associated with an application's lifecycle
D. Both A and C
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following defines the purpose of a count?
A. Provides an answer to a business question, and it is the business question that determines the
purpose
B. Influences the positioning of the application between the software under review and the surrounding
software
C. Influences the type of FP count to answer the business problem under investigation
D. Provides an input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort required to develop
the first release of an application
Answer: A

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NO.20 An application FP count is defined as:
A. a measure of the current functions the application provides the user
B. the initial development project FP count
C. an enhancement project that alters the applications functions
D. the activity of applying this International Standard to measure the functional size of an application
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 201-01
Nom d'Examen: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Network Performance Management)
Questions et réponses: 195 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A

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NO.2 On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface
Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User ¯s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following are differences between the Cascade Sensor and the Cascade Shark appliances?
(Select 2)
A. Cascade Shark appliance can monitor 10GE interface traffic but Cascade Sensor cannot.
B. Cascade Sensor can provide flow data to Cascade Profiler but Cascade Shark appliance cannot.
C. Cascade Shark appliance has much higher write-to-disk rates than the Cascade Sensor and is the
appropriate appliance when packet capture is the primary requirement.
D. Cascade Sensor can recognize the application type by its DPI signature database but Cascade Shark
appliance cannot.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the types of content blocks available to view Events
on the Cascade Profiler dashboard?
(Select 2)
A. Security Events
B. Performance and Availability Events
C. Current Events
D. Unacknowledged Events
E. Public Events
F. Private Events
G. Per User Events
H. Per IP Address Events
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 In a Cascade deployment with Sensor and Profiler, what information does the Application Performance
Policy report show? (Select 4)
A. Number of connections per second
B. Average Response time
C. TCP resets
D. CPU and memory utilization of server
E. TCP retransmission
F. Number of jumbo frames
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.8 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what do the QoS values mean?
A. They are based upon the 6-bit Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).
B. They are based upon Host Group definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
C. They are based upon Application definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
D. They are based upon Port definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are some reports Cascade Profiler provides to benefit WAN management?
A. WAN Optimization Benefits reports, Breakdown of business versus non-business application reports,
QOS reports by interface and/or application.
B. WAN Optimization of all TCP protocols with more specific optimization of over 50 TCP Applications.
C. WAN reporting of TCP Protocols.
D. QOS shaping, User-based policies that will block not compliant traffic, WAN optimization reporting.
Answer: A

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NO.10 How does the Cascade Profiler determine the optimization levels achieved for WAN Optimization
reports?
A. Compare the amount of traffic crossing a LAN interface to the corresponding traffic crossing an
optimized WAN interface.
B. Compare updates received via SNMP from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
C. The Cascade Profiler cannot determine optimization levels.
D. Through manual entry of levels achieved.
E. Compare updates received via flows from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
Answer: A

Riverbed   201-01 examen   201-01

NO.11 Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select "Apply with Filter".
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 To drill down and analyze a file within Cascade Pilot, you should. (Select 2)
A. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the object.
B. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the trace file.
C. Select the View, right-click, and apply it with the filter associated with a graphic object.
D. Right-click in the View chart, and select "Drill-down" to select the View.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C

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NO.14 To organize hosts into logical arrangements what is important to configure on Cascade Profiler.?
A. Host Baseline Profiles
B. Custom Port Definitions
C. Host Groupings
D. Mitigation Configuration
Answer: C

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NO.15 Configuring the Cascade appliance to use RADIUS for authentication/authorization involves which of
the following tasks (in no particular order): (Select 4)
A. User Name
B. Specify the IP address of the RADIUS server
C. Port number
D. Password
E. Authentication protocol
F. Shared secret of each RADIUS server
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.16 How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
Answer: A

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NO.17 Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are the ways Cascade Profiler can graphically depict response times in the GUI?
A. In Overall Traffic Graphs
B. In Connection Graphs
C. In Dashboard Line Graphs
D. In Overall Traffic Graphs and in Connection Graphs
Answer: D

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NO.20 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services
automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: BCP-221
Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (supporting BlackBerry Devices/Enterprise version 5.0)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 A BlackBerry device user notices email messages are being randomly deleted from the BlackBerry
device only days after receiving them. The user is not active on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server and does
not use BlackBerry Desktop Manager to synchronize with the messaging client. What are two possible
reasons the user email messages are being deleted? (Choose two.)
A. The email messages database is corrupt
B. The BlackBerry device user does not have sufficient network coverage
C. The BlackBerry device is in a low memory state
D. The hosted mailbox has reached its storage limit
E. The email messages are being automatically filed and hidden
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 A BlackBerry device user does not possess an organizer application like Microsoft Outlook. Which
translator will work for them to obtain a copy of their contacts and calendar on the computer with
BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Plain Text
B. ASCII text
C. CSV
D. Notepad
E. Wordpad
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two of the following processes can determine the current build version of BlackBerry Desktop
Manager that is installed? (Choose two.)
A. Right click the BlackBerry Desktop Manager icon on the desktop and review properties
B. Open BlackBerry Desktop Manager > Help > About Desktop Manager
C. Launch the BlackBerry Desktop Manager application and look at the title bar at the top of the
application
D. Open Control panel > Add / remove programs > Select Desktop Manager and choose lick here for
support info in Windows
E. Look on the BlackBerry Desktop Manager CD
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which of the following components must be selected during a custom install of BlackBerry Desktop
Software for S/MIME and Wi-Fi support? (Choose one.)
A. S/MIME Support Package
B. BlackBerry device software
C. BlackBerry Security support package
D. Certificate Synchronization
E. BlackBerry advanced networking support
Answer: D

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NO.5 A BlackBerry device user is trying to synchronize personal data and is receiving the following error: No
applications configured for synchronization What might cause this error? (Choose one.)
A. The user MAPI profile is corrupt
B. Other synchronization software on the user computer has caused a conflict
C. The Synchronize application has not been installed in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. The user has not run through the configuration steps for the Synchronize application
E. Duplicate items in the user registry have caused a conflict
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is taking place at the Verifying Encryption stage of the wireless enterprise activation process?
(Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device and BlackBerry Enterprise Server are negotiating a master encryption key
B. All personal information on the BlackBerry device is being compressed, encrypted and sent over the
wireless network to the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server
C. All settings on the BlackBerry device are being verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server for security
considerations
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is sending service book information to the BlackBerry device
E. The BlackBerry device is scanning the BlackBerry Enterprise Server settings for security
considerations
Answer: E

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NO.7 A user wants to connect a BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager using Bluetooth to
synchronize. Which of the following are requirements? (Choose one.)
A. The computer must be running the Bluetooth software from the manufacturer of the Bluetooth adapter
B. The BlackBerry Bluetooth to USB driver must be installed on the computer
C. The BlackBerry device must have the Wireless Bypass service enabled
D. The BlackBerry device must have the Bluetooth Sync service enabled
E. The computer and the BlackBerry Device must have line of sight of each other
Answer: C

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NO.8 Since upgrading the BlackBerry Device Software, a BlackBerry device user is reporting that custom
audio notifications are no longer configured. Which two of the following options may resolve the issue?
(Choose two.)
A. Synchronize using BlackBerry Desktop Manager to import any pre-existing custom audio profiles
B. Create a new Audio Profile in BlackBerry Desktop Manager Media Manager and import it with the
application loader tool
C. Manually recreate the lost notifications in the Profiles application of the BlackBerry device
D. If a backup file was created in BlackBerry Desktop Manager, restoring the Options database will
restore custom profiles
E. Download new ring tone content from the service provider and install using the BlackBerry Browser
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 If the BlackBerry device is displaying a lower case edge connection status, which two of the following
actions can a BlackBerry device user perform on the BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. Browse the Internet
B. Send or receive email messages
C. Send or receive SMS messages
D. Send or receive PIN messages
E. Make or receive phone calls
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 A BlackBerry device user filtered message count in the BlackBerry Administration Service is increasing
and no email messages are being forwarded to the BlackBerry device. Which of the following may be the
cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The user does not have sufficient wireless coverage
B. The BlackBerry device setting for f no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No The
BlackBerry device setting for if no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No
C. The user has not been provisioned for Enterprise services
D. The user mail client rules/policies are interfering with message delivery Theuser mail client
rules/policies are interfering with message delivery
E. The service books on the BlackBerry device are corrupt
Answer: B

BlackBerry   BCP-221   BCP-221   BCP-221   certification BCP-221

NO.11 A BlackBerry device user activates with an incorrect password. What error message will be displayed
on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Incorrect password. Please try again.
B. An error has occurred. Please contact your system administrator.
C. Invalid email address or password.
D. Error.
E. Invalid login credentials.
Answer: B

BlackBerry examen   certification BCP-221   BCP-221   BCP-221 examen   BCP-221 examen   certification BCP-221

NO.12 Which three of the following steps occur during the wireless enterprise activation process? (Choose
three.)
A. Service books are sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device reboots after it has finished synchronizing all organizer data (PIM) items
C. An encryption key is negotiated between the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and BlackBerry device
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server populates the PIN number of the BlackBerry device in the
BlackBerry Administration Service
E. The BlackBerry device must be connected to the user computer to complete the last stage of the
wireless enterprise activation process
Answer: A,C,D

BlackBerry   BCP-221 examen   BCP-221 examen   BCP-221 examen

NO.13 Which two files are generated by the BlackBerry Desktop Manager during synchronization with
advanced logging enabled? (Choose two.)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. Pttrace.log
E. Sync.log
Answer: C,D

BlackBerry   BCP-221   BCP-221 examen   BCP-221 examen

NO.14 .When performing a backup of the BlackBerry device using the backup and restore tool in BlackBerry
Desktop Manager, what is the file extension of the backup file that is created? (Choose one.)
A. .bak
B. .sav
C. .ipd
D. .fil
E. .tmp
Answer: C

BlackBerry examen   BCP-221   BCP-221   BCP-221 examen

NO.15 Which two of the following are types of searches that can be performed in the BTSC? (Choose two.)
A. Targeted
B. Software assisted
C. Boolean
D. Natural Language
E. Choice Focused
Answer: C,D

BlackBerry examen   BCP-221 examen   BCP-221 examen   BCP-221   BCP-221

NO.16 Which of the following will resolve a VM 517 error (Choose one.)Which of the following will resolve a
VM 517 error (Choose one.)
A. Removing and re-inserting the BlackBerry device battery
B. Performing a security wipe
C. Setting appropriate content store permissions
D. Reinstalling the BlackBerry Device Software using the application loader tool
E. Removing and re-seating the BlackBerry device SIM Card Removing and re-seating the BlackBerry
device SIM Card
Answer: D

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NO.17 By default, which three of the following options will delete all the user data on a BlackBerry device?
(Choose three.)
A. Enter incorrect password 10 times
B. Use the Wipe command in BlackBerry Device Manager
C. Choose Wipe Handheld from general options in security settings
D. Uninstall any application from the Application Permissions menu
E. Use the application loader tool to install new BlackBerry device software
Answer: A,C,E

certification BlackBerry   BCP-221   BCP-221 examen   BCP-221   BCP-221

NO.18 What happens after the BlackBerry device user has entered the enterprise activation information and
selects Activate on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Dispatcher Service contacts the BlackBerry device over the wireless network and
negotiates an encryption key
B. The BlackBerry device submits an ETP.DAT email message directly to the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server
C. The BlackBerry device submits the enterprise activation data to the wireless network
D. The system administrator of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will receive a request to activate, which
can either be accepted or denied
E. The BlackBerry device service books are verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: C

certification BlackBerry   BCP-221   certification BCP-221   BCP-221   BCP-221

NO.19 Which three of the following steps can be taken to secure a BlackBerry device remotely if it has been
activated on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.).
A. Reset the password and lock the BlackBerry device
B. Apply a more restrictive IT policy
C. Send a 911 notification to the service provider with the BlackBerry device PIN from the
BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. Push disabled service books to the BlackBerry device
E. Perform a remote security wipe and disable the BlackBerry device
Answer: A,B,E

BlackBerry   BCP-221 examen   BCP-221 examen   BCP-221 examen   BCP-221 examen

NO.20 Which two of the following media card settings on the BlackBerry device need to be turned on to copy
files between Windows Explorer and the media card? (Choose two.)
A. Media Card Support
B. USB Flash Drive Bypass Mode
C. Mass Storage Mode Support
D. USB Dongle Support
E. Auto Enable Mass Storage Mode When Connected
Answer: A,C

BlackBerry examen   BCP-221   BCP-221   BCP-221

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Code d'Examen: BCP-621
Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Designing and Deploying a BlackBerry Solution v5.0 in a IBM Lotus Domino Environment)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Which tool can be used to help control the amount of data the BlackBerry Synchronization Service
sends after an upgrade to BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 5.0 is complete? (Choose one)
A. SBInjector
B. PolcTrait
C. TraitTool
D. SBThrottle
E. SyncControl
Answer: C

certification BlackBerry   certification BCP-621   certification BCP-621

NO.2 After upgrading two Blackberry Enterprise Server instances to software version 5.0 services books and
IT polices are automatically updated and sent to BlackBerry devices running which minimum version of
BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose one)
A. 3.8 and above
B. 4.0 and above
C. 4.2 and above
D. 4.3 and above
E. 5.0 and above
Answer: B

certification BlackBerry   certification BCP-621   BCP-621   certification BCP-621   BCP-621

NO.3 One thousand BlackBerry 8830 devices have been sent to the employees in the regional offices and the
BlackBerry device users will be issued enterprise activation passwords next week.
Management would like to prevent unneeded wireless data charges. What can be done to ensure this
mass enterprise activation process uses as little wireless data as possible? (Choose one)
A. Set the 'Disable Wireless Activations' IT policy to 'True'
B. Set the 'Disable Wireless Bulk Loads' IT policy to 'True'
C. Set the 'Disable Enterprise Activation Progress' IT policy to 'True'
D. Set theisable Wireline Activations' IT policySet the ?isable Wireline Activations' IT policy to 'True'
Answer: B

BlackBerry   BCP-621   certification BCP-621   BCP-621   BCP-621 examen

NO.4 Management has requested that the ability to activate BlackBerry devices on the BlackBerry Enterprise
Server be restricted to approved BlackBerry device models only. What can be used to accommodate this
request? (Choose one)
A. IT Policy
B. PIN to Model Mapping
C. Enterprise Service Policy
D. Application Control Policy
E. Group Filter
Answer: C

BlackBerry   certification BCP-621   BCP-621 examen   BCP-621   BCP-621

NO.5 Nextair Corporation has determined the hardware running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software
version 4.1.6 will be insufficient to handle version 5.0. They plan to perform a cutover upgrade using the
existing SQL database. What is an advantage of implementing this strategy? (Choose one)
A. There is no downtime for other BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 instances sharing
the same SQL database
B. They will save the cost of an additional SRP Identifier
C. There is no need to back up the database prior to upgrade
D. The SQL database must be hosted locally to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

BlackBerry   BCP-621   certification BCP-621

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Code d'Examen: 010-002
Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (Certified MySQL Associate (English))
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Which part of a SELECT statement specifies the tables from which data is to be retrieved?
Select the best response.
A. The SELECT list.
B. The FROM clause.
C. The WHERE clause.
D. The LIMIT clause.
Answer: B

MYSQL examen   010-002 examen   certification 010-002

NO.2 A table is successfully created by executing the following statement:
CREATE TABLE numbers (
double_number double,
decimal_number decimal(2,1)
)
One row is successfully inserted into the numbers table. At this point, the table contains the following
data:
+---------------+----------------+
| double_number | decimal_number |
+---------------+----------------+
| 1.5 | 2.5 |
+---------------+----------------+
The row is updated by executing the following statement:
UPDATE numbers
SET double_number = double_number + 0.25,
decimal_number = decimal_number + 0.01
Which values are now stored in the double_number and decimal_number columns of the updated row?
Select the best response.
A. 1.8 and 2.5
B. 1.75 and 2.5
C. 1.8 and 2.51
D. 1.75 and 2.51
Answer: B

MYSQL   010-002 examen   certification 010-002

NO.3 In the context of database transactions, the atomicity property guarantees that...
Select the best response.
A. during a transaction, rows are processed one at a time.
B. all statements that are executed inside a transaction are immediately committed.
C. all statements that are executed inside a transaction are committed or rolled back as one unit.
D. other transactions cannot see the changes made in other ongoing uncommitted transactions.
Answer: C

certification MYSQL   010-002 examen   010-002   010-002   certification 010-002

NO.4 A MySQL table has ...
Select the best response.
A. zero or more columns, and zero or more rows.
B. zero or more columns, and one or more rows.
C. one or more columns, and zero or more rows.
D. one or more columns, and one or more rows.
Answer: C

MYSQL examen   010-002 examen   010-002   010-002 examen

NO.5 Which of the following statements can be used to list all databases that are accessible to the current
user?
Select the best response.
A. LIST DATABASES
B. SHOW DATABASES
C. DISPLAY DATABASES
D. VIEW DATABASES
Answer: B

MYSQL   010-002 examen   certification 010-002

NO.6 Which statement can be used to list all columns in the City table?
Select the best response.
A. DISPLAY COLUMNS FROM City
B. SHOW COLUMNS FROM City
C. SHOW COLUMNS LIKE 'City'
D. SHOW City COLUMNS
Answer: B

MYSQL examen   certification 010-002   010-002 examen   010-002   010-002

NO.7 Which of the following statements will discard the existing database called world?
Select the best response.
A. DELETE DATABASE world
B. DROP DATABASE world
C. REMOVE DATABASE world
D. TRUNCATE DATABASE world
Answer: B

MYSQL   010-002 examen   010-002 examen   010-002

NO.8 The default database contains a table called City. Which of the following statements may be executed
to obtain a statement that could be used to (re-)create the City table?
Select the best response.
A. DESCRIBE City
B. DESCRIBE TABLE City
C. SHOW TABLE City
D. SHOW CREATE TABLE City
Answer: D

MYSQL examen   010-002   010-002 examen   certification 010-002

NO.9 Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the SQL WHERE clause?
In SQL statements, the WHERE clause specifies ...
Select the best response.
A. the tables from which data is to be retrieved.
B. a condition to filter for only specific rows.
C. a condition to filter for only specific groups defined by a GROUP BY clause.
D. a number to limit the number of rows that is operated upon by the statement.
Answer: B

MYSQL examen   010-002   010-002   certification 010-002

NO.10 The table Country contains the following rows:
+--------------------------+------------+
| Name | Population |
+--------------------------+------------+
| Nauru | 12000 |
| Turks and Caicos Islands | 17000 |
| Tuvalu | 12000 |
| Wallis and Futuna | 15000 |
+--------------------------+------------+
Which of the following statements will return all rows in the table, sorted by the value in the Population
column?
Select the best response.
A. SELECT Name, Population ASC
FROM Country
B. SELECT Name, ORDER BY Population
FROM Country
C. SELECT Name, Population
FROM Country
GROUP BY Population ASC
D. SELECT Name, Population
FROM Country
ORDER BY Population
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C_TB1200_07
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007)
Questions et réponses: 152 Q&As

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NO.1 Our purchasing manager would like to see a weekly report that lists stock items that fall below a critical
point. What is the easiest way of doing this?
A.In the inventory data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level. Whenever employees post
a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, they need to send an email message to the
purchasing manager.
B.In the warehouse data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level and activate the
predefined alert 'Minimum Stock Deviation' that will inform the purchasing manager whenever stock falls
below this threshold.
C.Create a query that lists all the items with inventory below the minimum level and link this query to a
user-defined alert. Specify the required frequency, click the checkbox to make the alert active, and make
sure you select the purchasing manager as the receiver.
D.In the document settings, set the 'When Attempting to Release Stock Below the Minimum Level'
indicator. Whenever an employee posts a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, the
purchasing manager automatically receives a message.
Answer:C

SAP examen   C_TB1200_07 examen   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07

NO.2 The sales manager at Gali Sport is confused by the different prices that can be related to a customer:
price lists and special prices. He needs to understand how the system calculates prices in sales
documents. Which answer below reflects the order in which the system looks for the correct price?
A.1) Special prices for the customer 2) Discount groups linked to the business partner 3) Period and
volume discounts defined for the price list and linked to the business partner 4) The price list specified in
the business partner master data
B.1) Discount groups 2) Special prices for the customer 3) Period and volume discounts for the price list
linked to the business partner 4) The default price list for the customer
C.1) The default price list for the document 2) Discount groups tied to the document 3) Special prices for
the customer
D.1) Customer special prices 2) Discount groups 3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list
linked to the document 4) Price list defined for the document
Answer:A

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NO.3 Sophie created a query and now wants to print a report from the query. What must Sophie do before
she can print the query results?
A.Link her query to a base template using the Query Manager.
B.Link her query to a base template using the Print Layout Designer.
C.Link her query to a base template using the Query Print Layout tool.
D.Link her query to a base template using the Query Generator.
Answer:A

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NO.4 PKJ Ltd maintains its price list automatically based on last purchase price. When PKJ sells a product,
they want to add their overhead of 40% to the sales price. How can they accomplish this?
A.Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list, select all the prices and increase
them by 40%.
B.Create a Customer price list and enter the sales prices.
C.Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list with a factor of 1.4.
D.In the business partner master data, select the Last Purchase price list and specify a premium of 40%.
Answer:C

SAP examen   C_TB1200_07 examen   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07 examen

NO.5 I add a new Sales Opportunity for a business partner. I do not want to issue any documents to this
partner at the moment. However, I would like to link this opportunity to a Quotation that I issued for
another business partner in the past. Is this possible?
A.Access the sales opportunity and choose the Stages tab. Select 'Sales Quotation' as the document type,
then select a quotation from another business partner.
B.Access the sales opportunity and enter the code of the other business partner as the 'Partner'. You can
now link any quotation issued to that business partner to your opportunity.
C.You can only link activities directly to the sales opportunity.
D.You can only link a sales opportunity to a quotation for the same business partner.
Answer:A

SAP examen   C_TB1200_07   certification C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07

NO.6 Sophie created a user-defined query and linked a template to it using the query print layout function.
After she designed the template she realized that she needs to add an additional column of data to the
report. Can Sophie add new columns to the existing report?
A.No. Since Sophie can only change static report information and cannot add database fields to the
matrix data, she must create a new query and assign it to a new print template.
B.No. Once Sophie has assigned the template to the query, she cannot make any changes to any field in
the report.
C.Yes. Sophie can add new columns to the report by creating a new database field in the repetitive area
of the linked template.
D.Yes. Sophie can create a new column in the template, and since it is linked to the query, it will update
the original template and the matrix data automatically.
Answer:A

SAP examen   certification C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07

NO.7 How is the available quantity calculated in SAP Business One?
A.Quantity in stock - quantity committed + quantity ordered.
B.Quantity in stock + quantity committed - quantity ordered.
C.Quantity in stock + quantity ordered.
D.Quantity in stock - quantity committed.
Answer:A

SAP   C_TB1200_07 examen   C_TB1200_07

NO.8 What functions are available in the Human Resources module of SAP Business One?
A.Payroll processing
B.Shift planning
C.Employee master data
D.Recording and evaluation of absences
E.Tracking of employee costs and salaries
Answer:A B C D E

SAP   C_TB1200_07   certification C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07

NO.9 Which elements of a query are optional when you create a query with the Query Wizard?
A.Conditions
B.Table entries
C.Field entries
D.Grouping
E.Sorting
Answer:A B C D E

SAP   certification C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07 examen   C_TB1200_07 examen   certification C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07 examen

NO.10 Every day my employees run a query to check how many orders we have issued on that day and what
their value was. I have created a simple query using the Orders table (ORDR): Document Number,
Document Date, Document Total Where Document Date EQUAL 01/05/07 (for example). How can I
create a "general" query so I do not have to go into this query statement every day to change the date in
the "Where" condition area?
A.Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%0]' then save
the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
B.Delete the condition from the query. Create a general query that will display all the orders created in the
system to date. When the report displays, use the Sort Table to display the desired data.
C.Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date NOT EQUAL '[%0]' then
save the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
D.Define a variable in the "Group By" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%3]' then
save the query.
Answer:A

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NO.11 You are reviewing the details of a user-defined query and notice the strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3]. What
is the function of these strings in a query?
A.The string [%0] is a variable used to create a query. Each variable is unique, so if more than one
variable is defined, each requires a unique name such as: [%1], [%2].
B.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] represent fixed values in the query.
C.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are conditions you can see displayed in the Conditions column in the
Query Generator.
D.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are fields from the OITM table which you can retrieve from either the
Query Generator or Query Wizard.
Answer:A

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NO.12 You want to show your customer which documents relate to each other in SAP Business One. Which
of these statements is correct?
A.When you display a document, you can use the base and target document icons to display a document
flow.
B.From the document, drill down to the business partner master data and choose Document Flow.
C.Use Drag Relate to display which documents are related to each other.
D.You can branch from the display of a document to its history. There you find a chronological list of all
base and target documents.
Answer:A

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NO.13 What are the advantages of query print layouts as opposed to standard queries?
A.You can adjust the template of the query print layouts.
B.You can add sub-sorts and sub-totals using the print layout designer.
C.Query print layouts can be based on several queries.
D.Authorization administration for query print layouts is simpler.
E.You can standardize your report layouts by using a customized base template, for example, with the
company logo, for all the reports.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.14 For which of the following events is the moving average cost recalculated?
A.Stock entry.
B.Stock release.
C.Completion of a production order.
D.Purchase order submission.
Answer:A B C D

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NO.15 I want to create a query to display all the invoices over $1500 issued for a specific customer by one of
my sales employees Sara Chang. How do I find which fields I should enter in the SQL query?
A.When you hold down the Ctrl key and click the mouse on a field you want to display, the table and field
name will appear at the bottom of the screen.
B.When you click the mouse on a field you want to display and choose View -> System information, the
table and field name will appear at the bottom of the screen in the Status Bar.
C.Open the Query Wizard because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query.
D.Use the Query Generator because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query,
after you click the mouse on a field you want to display.
Answer:B

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NO.16 Kathryn from Roses and Sunflowers gift shop creates a purchase order for an item, which is out of
stock. The current stock level for the item is zero. There are no open purchase orders or sales orders for
this item. After she has selected the item in the purchase order, she notices that there is a 4 in the
'Quantity' field. Why?
A.The value in the 'Items per Purchase Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
B.The value in the 'Factor 2' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
C.The value in the 'Required (Purchasing UoM) Inventory Level' field is 4.
D.The value in the 'Quantity Per Packaging Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
Answer:A B C D

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NO.17 The following statements relate to the analysis of sales opportunities. Which statements are correct?
A.Use the Opportunity Statistics Report to analyze entered, open, and closed opportunities in the system.
B.To get an overview of the progress of all sales opportunities, use the Stage Analysis report.
C.The Opportunities Forecast Report only takes account of completed opportunities.
D.Open opportunities are not included in the Opportunity Pipeline analysis.
E.A sales manager can use selection criteria in "My Open Opportunities Report" to view sales
opportunites for any of his direct reports.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.18 The sales manager wants to be informed whenever a customer exceeds his credit limit. However, he
does not want the sales process to be blocked when he is not available. What do you recommend?
A.Activate and configure the predefined alert function 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
B.Activate and configure the predefined approval procedure 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
C.Restrict the general authorization to confirm credit line deviations to the sales manager.
D.Activate and configure a user-defined alert when a customer exceeds the credit limit. The alert goes to
each sales person and they can save the sales document as a draft.
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which statements are correct regarding inventory valuation methods?
A.With moving average cost valuation, stock is valued by dividing the total value by the total quantity.
B.With moving average cost valuation, you must enter a cost price into the item master record.
C.With standard cost valuation, stock may need to be periodically revalued.
D.With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the oldest item.
E.With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the most recent item.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.20 A company issues a large number of deliveries on a monthly basis. The company's sales manager
wants to know the fastest way to produce invoices based on these deliveries. What would you
recommend?
A.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the target document and Deliveries as the
base document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
B.Use the Dunning Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the document type. Use the posting date to select all
deliveries for the relevant month.
C.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoices as the base document and Delivery as the
target document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
D.Use the Payment Wizard. Select Deliveries as the base document and A/R Invoice as the target
document. Use the posting date to select relevant deliveries.
Answer:A

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