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2014年8月6日星期三

Certification CompTIA de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen CV0-001 SY0-401, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CV0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 261 Q&As

Code d'Examen: SY0-401
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Security+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 512 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is an example of a false positive?
A. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
B. A biometric iris scanner rejects an authorized user wearing a new contact lens.
C. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
D. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following will allow Pete, a security analyst, to trigger a security alert because of
a tracking cookie?
A. Network based firewall
B. Anti-spam software
C. Host based firewall
D. Anti-spyware software
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is an application security coding problem?
A. Error and exception handling
B. Patch management
C. Application hardening
D. Application fuzzing
Answer: A

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NO.4 Jane has recently implemented a new network design at her organization and wishes to
passively identify security issues with the new network. Which of the following should Jane perform?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Black box testing
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: A

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NO.5 Pete, a developer, writes an application. Jane, the security analyst, knows some things about
the overall application but does not have all the details. Jane needs to review the software before it
is released to production. Which of the following reviews should Jane conduct?
A. Gray Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. White Box Testing
Answer: A

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NO.6 Several bins are located throughout a building for secure disposal of sensitive information.
Which of the following does this prevent?
A. Dumpster diving
B. War driving
C. Tailgating
D. War chalking
Answer: A

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NO.7 Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email
server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets
flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this
issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Answer: B

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NO.8 Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the
following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI
Answer: A

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2014年2月23日星期日

Guide de formation plus récente de CompTIA FC0-GR1

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Code d'Examen: FC0-GR1
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Green IT Exam)
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 A company would like to dispose of old toner units. Which of the following would be the MOST
appropriate course of action to take?
A. Use an approved recycling program either through a vendor or local government agency.
B. Old toner disposal is the responsibility of the manufacturer. Call the appropriate number at the
respective company.
C. Toss the units into the trash. Toner cartridges are biodegradable.
D. Clean out the toner cartridges with warm water and place the clean units into the recycling collection.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following standard symbols signifies that a packaged item was produced using
hazardous materials industry guidelines?
A. Energy Star
B. Energy Star 2.0
C. PCI-E
D. RoHS
Answer: D

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NO.3 A bank runs 50 workstations and would like to decrease its electricity costs, while not sacrificing
functionality. All of the workstations are high-end performance units that are intended to be used for
CAD-like applications. Analysts benefit from the added performance, but tellers and associates could use
more minimalist systems. Which of the following methods would decrease the banks electricity and
hardware costs?
A. Swap all teller and associate machines with servers.
B. Swap all teller and associate machines with thin clients.
C. Swap all teller and associate machines with low-profile high-end workstations.
D. Swap all teller and associate machines with laptops.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A corporation plans to replace older office PCs with energy efficient personal computers in their 24 hour
help desk department. Which of the following would be the BEST choice?
A. Tablet notebooks with LCD monitors
B. Thin clients with LCD monitors
C. Thin clients with CRT monitors
D. Notebook computers with LCD monitors
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following will allow multiple operating systems to run on one workstation?
A. FireWire
B. KVM
C. Virtualization
D. Terminal servers
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the recommended disposal method for used computers?
A. Trash can
B. Burial
C. Recycling center
D. Storage shed
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following needs to be recycled due to dangerous amounts of gas contained inside its
housing?
A. CRT
B. Toner
C. Surge suppressor
D. LCD
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following would allow a company to conserve energy and still provide a functional service
to its employees?
A. Configure all workstations with higher RPM fans
B. Use CRTs instead of LCD monitors
C. Use NAS to reduce the number of file servers
D. Configure all printers to print on single-side with low resolution
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following can conserve energy in a server room?
A. Sealing all potential cold air leaks
B. Installing additional cooling fans
C. Setting the temperature lower
D. Replacing the UPS with a generator
Answer: A

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NO.10 The power saving state in which a computer cuts power to all its unneeded parts and copies the RAM
content to the hard drive is called:
A. hibernate.
B. shutdown.
C. sleep.
D. hypervisor.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following methods effectively removes data from a hard drive prior to disposal? (Select
TWO).
A. Use the remove hardware OS feature
B. Formatting the hard drive
C. Physical destruction
D. Degauss the drive
E. Overwriting data with 1s and 0s by utilizing software
Answer: CE

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NO.12 Which of the following would a company implement to help reduce the cost of electricity?
A. Shutdown/power policies
B. Redundant power supplies
C. Use optical mice
D. Social engineering policy
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following technologies can save server space and cooling requirements?
A. Energy star ratings
B. Active solar panels
C. Network storage array
D. Blade servers
Answer: D

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NO.14 A large company has over 500 computers that currently stay powered on indefinitely. None of the
systems are used after the company closes at 5 p.m. Which of the following would be the MOST effective
way for the company to save on electricity usage?
A. Set the computers for automatic log-off after one hour of inactivity.
B. Institute a policy of either shutdown or sleep mode an hour after close.
C. Turn on the Wake on LAN functionality for all computers.
D. Schedule all patching to be done during work hours.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following terms is used when printing data on both the front and the back of paper?
A. Scaling
B. Copying
C. Duplex
D. Simplex
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following technologies allows a single piece of hardware to host multiple operating
systems simultaneously?
A. Virtualization
B. SMTP servers
C. ThinNet clients
D. Terminal servers
Answer: A

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NO.17 A small business currently has four separate servers, three of which perform low-overhead tasks with
small memory footprints. How could the company BEST reduce power consumption among these four
servers, while not sacrificing functionality?
A. Enable each server's Cool 'n' Quiet and/or SpeedStep functionality so that processing power is
conserved.
B. Enforce auto-shutdown routines on all four servers for after-hours power saving while the office is
closed.
C. Consolidate the four servers onto the best two, combining them logically by tasks and memory
consumption.
D. Consolidate the four servers onto the most powerful machine using virtualization.
Answer: D

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NO.18 A small business currently has a server room with a large cooling system that is appropriate for its size.
The location of the server room is the top level of a building. The server room is filled with incandescent
lighting that needs to continuously stay on for security purposes. Which of the following would be the
MOST cost-effective way for the company to reduce the server rooms energy footprint?
A. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving neon lighting.
B. Set an auto-shutoff policy for all the lights in the room to reduce energy consumption after hours.
C. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving fluorescent lighting.
D. Consolidate server systems into a lower number of racks, centralizing airflow and cooling in the room.
Answer: C

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NO.19 A user reports that their cell phone battery is dead and cannot hold a charge. Which of the following
should be done when disposing of the old battery?
A. Recycle the battery.
B. Store the battery.
C. Place battery in a sealed plastic bag.
D. Disassemble the battery.
Answer: A

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NO.20 A large company would like to roll out thin clients to all retail terminals on its next upgrade. Which of
the following are potential risks of this IT plan?
A. Power consumption; thin clients use more energy than comparable workstations and therefore have a
larger energy footprint.
B. Single point of failure; if the thin client server goes down all machines are without functionality.
C. Centralized administration; IT staff cannot rely on localized group policy settings.
D. High cost of terminals; compared to traditional workstations, thin clients are very expensive and require
more maintenance.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: JK0-U11
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality Exam)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet
contents?
A. Monitoring control
B. Usage management tool
C. Content filter control
D. Bandwidth control
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Content filter control is a type of parental control that is used to limit access to the Internet content.
Answer A is incorrect. Monitoring control is a type of parental control that is used to track locations
nd activities when using the device.
Answer B is incorrect. Usage management tool is a type of parental control that allows parents to
enforce learning time into child computing time.
Answer D is incorrect. There is no parental control such as bandwidth control.

NO.2 You need to alter disk partitions in Windows XP prior to upgrade to Windows Vista.
Which Windows utility should you use for this?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. The Registry
C. Disk Management
D. System Configuration Utility
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Disk Management tool is used to alter, adjust, and configure partitions.

NO.3 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.
The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. A user working on a Windows 2000
Professional client computer reports that he is unable to access some files on the hard disk.
However, he is able to successfully log on and access other files. What should Mark do to resolve
the issue?
A. Instruct the user to log off and log on again.
B. Enable the user account on the computer.
C. Check the file permissions on the hard disk drive.
D. Check the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
In order to resolve the issue, Mark should check the file permissions for the user on the hard disk
drive. According to the question, the user is able to access other files on the hard disk. Hence, the
most likely cause of the issue is that the user does not have sufficient privileges on those files.
Answer A is incorrect. Logging off and then logging on will not help resolve the issue.
Answer D is incorrect. Checking the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility will not help, as the
issue is related to permissions.
Answer B is incorrect. According to the question, the user is able to successfully log on to the
computer. This indicates that his user account is already enabled. Hence, there is no need to enable
it.

NO.4 Which of the following statements about a smart card are true? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory.
B. It is used to securely store public and private keys for log on , e-mail signing and encryption, and
file encryption.
C. It is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks.
D. It is a device that works as an interface between a computer and a network.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
A smart card is a credit card-sized device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory. It
is used to securely store public and private keys for log on, e- mail signing and encryption, and file
encryption. To use a smart card, a computer must have a smart card reader attached with it.

NO.5 Which of the following is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption?
A. IDEA
B. TKIP
C. RSA
D. RC4
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is an encryption protocol defined in the IEEE 802.11i standard
for wireless LANs (WLANs). It is designed to provide more secure encryption than the disreputably
weak Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP). TKIP is the encryption method used in Wi-Fi Protected Access
(WPA), which replaced WEP in WLAN products. TKIP is a suite of algorithms to replace WEP without
requiring the replacement of legacy WLAN equipment. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but
wraps additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it. Like WEP , TKIP uses
the RC4 stream encryption algorithm as its basis.

NO.6 Which of the following statements does the UK Parliament state in the Computer Misuse Act
1990? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine
"not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale".
B. Personal data shall be adequate, relevant, and not excessive in relation to the purpose or
purposes for which they are processed.
C. Appropriate technical and organizational measures shall be taken against unauthorized or
unlawful processing of personal data and against accidental loss or destruction of, or damage
D. Unauthorized modification of computer material is subject to the same sentences as section 2
offences.
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
The Computer Misuse Act 1990 is an act of the UK Parliament which states the following statement:
Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine
"not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale" (currently 5000). Unauthorized access with the intent
to commit or facilitate commission of further offences is punishable by 6 months/maximum fine on
summary conviction or 5 years/fine on indictment. Unauthorized modification of computer material
is subject to the same sentences as section 2 offences.
Answer B and C are incorrect. These two statements are stated in the Data Protection Act 1998.

NO.7 Which of the following refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or
interface?
A. Spam
B. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
C. Bandwidth
D. Branding
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Bandwidth is a term that refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or interface.
Bandwidth (or digital bandwidth) is a measurement of how much data can be sent in a period of
time. It is a data rate measured in bits. The standard unit of digital bandwidth is bits per second
(bps). In radio communication,
bandwidth (analogue bandwidth) is the range of frequencies occupied by the radio signals. The
standard unit of analogue bandwidth is Hertz (Hz).
Answer D is incorrect. In Web site designing, branding refers to the look and feel of a Web site.
Branding helps in differentiating a site from its competitors and also helps the customer to develop
a relationship with the Web site. The look and feel of a Web site comes through logo, fonts, color
schemes, and symbols used in the Web site. The overall look of the Web site should be consistent.
Answer B is incorrect. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an environment to boot computers
using a network interface independently of available data storage devices like hard disks or installed
operating systems. PXE is also known as Pre-Execution Environment.
Answer A is incorrect. Spam is a term that refers to the unsolicited e-mails sent to a large number of
e-mail users. The number of such e-mails is increasing day by day, as most companies now prefer to
use e-mails for promoting their products. Because of these unsolicited e- mails, legitimate e-mails
take a much longer time to deliver to their destination. The attachments sent through spam may
also contain viruses. However, spam can be stopped by implementing spam filters on servers and
e-mail clients.

NO.8 Which of the following parts of the computer is built-in to the motherboard?
A. Joystick
B. Mouse
C. Sound card
D. CD-ROM drive
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Sound cards are built-in to the motherboard. Sound card enables the computer to output sound to
audio devices, as well as accept input from a microphone. Most modern computers have sound
cards built-in to the motherboard, though it is common for a user to install a separate sound card as
an upgrade.
Answer D is incorrect. CD- ROM is a device used for reading data from a CD. This device is not built-
in to the mother board.
Answer B is incorrect. Mouse is a pointing device that detects two dimensional motion relative to its
supporting surface. This device is not built-in to the mother board.
Answer A is incorrect. Joystick is a device mostly used in gaming. It consists of a handheld stick that
pivots around one end, to detect angles in two or three dimensions.

NO.9 Which of the following slots on a motherboard are best for a video card? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. EISA
D. AGP
Answer: D,B

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Explanation:
AGP and PCIe are the best slots for a video card. PCI Express (PCIe), also known as 3rd Generation
I/O (3GIO), is a type of computer bus. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than
PCI and AGP slots. It uses two low-voltage differential pairs, at 2.5Gb/s in each direction. It is
designed to replace PCI and AGP expansion slots. The bus is available in several different bus widths:
x1, x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, and x32. PCIe is able to transfer data in both directions at a time. PCIe
hardware will work on operating systems that support PCI. AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed
for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct access to a
computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133
MB/second.
Answer C is incorrect. The Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion
bus designed as a superset of a 16-bit ISA bus. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and
expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards. EISA slots
are obsolete now.
Answer A is incorrect. PCIe and AGP slots are better than PCI slot for a video card.

NO.10 Which of the following is a file management tool?
A. Windows Explorer
B. Device Manager
C. MSCONFIG
D. Defrag
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-U11   certification JK0-U11   JK0-U11   certification JK0-U11
Explanation:
Windows Explorer is a file management tool. Windows Explorer is a dual-pane window that can be
used for file management.
File management includes copying, moving, renaming, and searching files and folders.
Windows Explorer displays the resources on the system and the tools available in the operating
system in a hierarchical form, in its left window-pane.
It displays the contents of the folder that is selected in the left window-pane, in its right window-
pane.
Windows Explorer can also be used for starting programs or accessing system resources such as a
printer.
It can be accessed in Windows through the Start menu as follows:
Start>Programs>Accessories>Windows Explorer
Answer B and C are incorrect.
Device Manager and MSCONFIG are system management tools.

NO.11 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a
company.
The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new
PC's. What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new
machines.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The User State Migration Tool is made specifically for this purpose. Large scale migrations require
not only files but system settings to be moved to new machines and Microsoft created this tool for
this purpose.

NO.12 A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you
recommend?
A. A PCI Express card
B. Upgrade is not possible
C. A PCMCIA card
D. An AGP Card
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Video cards in laptops are built into the motherboard and cannot be upgraded.
Answer D is incorrect. An AGP card is an older type of video card for PC's.

NO.13 You are selecting memory to put in to a laptop. Which of the following types of RAM chips
would you most likely select?
A. 72 PIN
B. 240 PIN
C. 184 PIN
D. 144 PIN
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   JK0-U11   certification JK0-U11
Explanation:
Both MicroDIMM and SO-DIMM come in a 144 pin configuration, and are used for laptops.

NO.14 You are working in a Windows network environment. Which of the following accounts/groups
have many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Guest
B. Standard user
C. Administrator
D. Power Users
Answer: D,C

CompTIA   JK0-U11 examen   JK0-U11   certification JK0-U11
Explanation:
An Administrator user account has full permissions on the computer.
The Power Users group has many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users.
Power users can perform any tasks except those reserved for administrators.
Answer B is incorrect. A Standard user account has a minimal set of permissions.
Each account in standard user mode is designed to store a separate set of settings for users.
The users are allowed to launch applications, create new documents, and modify basic system
configurations.
Answer A is incorrect. A Guest account is designed to provide temporary access to computers.
It does not store user-specific profile settings permanently. This account is disabled by default.

NO.15 Which of the following is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of
the owner?
A. Shareware
B. Malware
C. Freeware
D. Stealware
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The term malware refers to malicious software, which is a broad class of malicious viruses, including
spyware.
Malware is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner.
Answer D is incorrect. Stealware is associated with Web bugs or spyware.
It is used by Web sites to affiliate marketing programs. Stealware attributes can be present in
peer-to-peer software applications. Spyware, adware, and stealware are similar types of malicious
code. Some Websites are advertised as free and allow information to be downloaded.
However, a pop-up window with a disclaimer should appear.
The disclaimer discloses information of possible charges or rerouting of the Web site. The users
should read the disclaimer to learn what charges are applicable before clicking the advertisement.
Otherwise, they will be liable to pay a large sum of money. The working procedure of stealware is
shown in the figure below:
Answer A is incorrect. Shareware is software designed to use freely or for a limited period available
on the Internet. After completing the given time, the user can either purchase it or legally remove it.
These types of products are usually offered either with certain features only available when the user
has purchased the product, or as a full version but for a limited trial period of time.
Answer C is incorrect. Freeware is computer software that can be used without paying for it.

NO.16 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and
provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Audio/modem riser
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Riser card
D. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-U11   JK0-U11   JK0-U11
Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability
to connect additional expansion cards to the computer.
These cards are used with LPX motherboards. With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser
cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the expansion cards connect directly to the computer
motherboard instead of using riser cards.
Answer A is incorrect. The audio/modem riser (AMR), also known as an AMR slot, is an expansion
slot. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon personal
computers. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality, such
as sound cards and modems, on an expansion card. It has two rows of 23 pins each, making a total
of 46 pins.
Answer D is incorrect. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed
by Intel. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as
modems and audio devices. It supports V.90 analog modem, multi-channel audio, phone-line-based
networking, and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. CNR also minimizes electrical noise
interference through the physical separation of noise- sensitive elements from the motherboard's
communication systems.
Answer B is incorrect. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format used in portable
devices such as mobile phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards are based on the
older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but they are a little thicker than MMC cards. Generally an SD
card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards generally measure 32 mm x 24 mm x 2.1 mm,
but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots can use the thinner MMC
cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards are also
available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity
ports such as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port.

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Code d'Examen: CAS-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner)
Questions et réponses: 349 Q&As

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NO.1 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

CompTIA examen   CAS-001   CAS-001 examen

NO.2 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to conduct network reconnaissance,
which is carried out by a remote attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it
is not authorized/allowed.
What will you do?
A. Use a SuperScan
B. Use a netcat utility
C. Use a vulnerability scanner
D. Use an idle scan
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.3 Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. DNS
B. QoS
C. H.323
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.4 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want to allow some users to access a
particular program on the computers in the network. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Apply remote access policies
B. Apply NTFS permissions
C. Apply group policies
D. Apply account policies
Answer: C

CompTIA   CAS-001   CAS-001 examen   CAS-001 examen   CAS-001 examen

NO.5 Collaboration platform offers a set of software components and services that enable users to
communicate, share information, and work together for achieving common business goals. What are the
core elements of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Product and service integration
B. Real-time communication
C. Change management
D. Team collaboration
E. Messaging
Answer: B,D,E

CompTIA   CAS-001   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.6 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want the clients and servers in your
organization to be able to communicate in a way that prevents eavesdropping and tampering of data on
the Internet. Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?
A. EFS
B. WEP
C. SSL
D. MS-CHAP
Answer: C

CompTIA   CAS-001 examen   CAS-001

NO.7 Which of the following terms is about communicating the user's need and ability to communicate, and
the medium through which that communication may occur?
A. Data sharing
B. Presence
C. Instant messaging
D. Audio conferencing
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which of the following attacks does an attacker intercept call-signaling SIP message traffic and
masquerade as the calling party to the called party and vice-versa?
A. Call tampering
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Eavesdropping
D. Denial of Service
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

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NO.10 SDLC phases include a minimum set of security tasks that are required to effectively incorporate
security in the system development process. Which of the following are the key security activities for the
development/acquisition phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation
B. Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls
C. Determination of privacy requirements
D. Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: A,B

CompTIA   certification CAS-001   certification CAS-001   CAS-001   certification CAS-001

NO.11 The Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) consists of various security practices that are grouped under
seven phases. Which of the following security practices are included in the Requirements phase.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Create Quality Gates/Bug Bars
C. Attack Surface Analysis/Reduction
D. Security and Privacy Risk Assessment
Answer: B,D

CompTIA   CAS-001 examen   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.12 Which of the following components of a VoIP network is frequently used to bridge video conferencing
connections?
A. MCU
B. Videoconference station
C. IP Phone
D. Call agent
Answer: A

CompTIA examen   CAS-001   CAS-001   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.13 Which of the following is frequently used by administrators to verify security policies of their networks
and by attackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromise it?
A. Fuzzer
B. Port scanner
C. MegaPing
D. UDP scan
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.14 Which of the following stages are involved in the successful implementation of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Ongoing collaboration solution design
B. Federated identity management
C. Platform implementation
D. Product and service integration
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which of the following is the most secure authentication scheme and uses a public key cryptography
and digital certificate to authenticate a user?
A. Form-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Certificate-based authentication
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications and web-based push to
talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification CAS-001   certification CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.17 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
Development Lifecycle (SDL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

CompTIA   CAS-001   CAS-001   CAS-001 examen   CAS-001

NO.18 In which of the following activities an organization identifies and prioritizes technical, organizational,
procedural, administrative, and physical security weaknesses?
A. Social engineering
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.19 Which of the following are the functions of a network security administrator? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Backing up the files
B. Writing computer software
C. Maintaining and implementing a firewall
D. Developing, maintaining, and implementing IT security
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 Which of the following is a declarative access control policy language implemented in XML and a
processing model, describing how to interpret the policies?
A. SAML
B. SOAP
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: JK0-019
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 637 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following would Joe, a technician, configure to modify the time a device will hold an IP
address provided through DHCP?
A. DNS suffixes
B. Leases
C. Static IP addressing
D. Reservations
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following network topologies, when a single machine's cable breaks, would only affect one
network device and not the rest of the network?
A. Bus
B. Peer-to-peer
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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NO.3 Two duplicate pieces of equipment can be used in conjunction for which of the following purposes?
(Select TWO)
A. High availability
B. Fault tolerance
C. Reduce latency
D. Wi-MAX
E. CARP
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which of the following should Joe, a technician, do FIRST when setting up a SOHO network?
A. Set up an account with an Internet service provider.
B. Create a list of requirements and constraints.
C. Arrange a domain name with a suitable registrar.
D. Choose the correct operating system version.
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-019   certification JK0-019   JK0-019 examen   JK0-019 examen

NO.5 A company has only three laptops that connect to their wireless network. The company is currently
using WEP encryption on their wireless network. They have noticed unauthorized connections on their
WAP and want to secure their wireless connection to prevent this.
Which of the following security measures would BEST secure their wireless network? (Select TWO).
A. Change the encryption method to WPA
B. Limit the DHCP scope to only have three addresses total
C. Enable the SSID broadcast
D. Enable and configure MAC filtering
E. Change the broadcast channel to a less commonly used channel
Answer: A,D

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019   JK0-019 examen

NO.6 Which of the following TCP/IP and OSI model layers retransmits a TCP packet if it is not received
successfully at its destination?
A. The transport OSI model layer and the transport TCP/IP model layer
B. The transport OSI model layer and the Internet TCP/IP model layer
C. The network OSI model layer and the transport TCP/IP model layer
D. The network OSI model layer and the Internet TCP/IP model layer
Answer: A

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NO.7 Sandy, a network administrator, wants to be able to block all already known malicious activity.
Which of the following would allow her to perform this activity.?
A. Behavioral Based IDS
B. Signature Based IDS
C. Behavioral Based IPS
D. Signature Based IPS
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019   certification JK0-019   JK0-019 examen

NO.8 Sandy, a technician, wants to limit access to a wireless network to company owned laptops, but does
not want to use an encryption method. Which of the following methods would be BEST to accomplish
this?
A. MAC filtering
B. SSL VPN
C. PPPoE
D. WPA Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial
cable?
A. RJ-11
B. BNC
C. LC
D. DB-9
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019   certification JK0-019

NO.10 Sandy, the network administrator, has funding to do a major upgrade of the company s LAN. This
upgrade is currently in the planning stage, and Sandy still needs to determine the network requirements,
bottlenecks, and any future upgrades in mind. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the planning
process?
A. Conduct a vulnerability scan
B. Establish a network baseline
C. Conduct traffic analysis
D. Conduct a risk assessment
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-019 examen   JK0-019 examen   JK0-019

NO.11 Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?
A. A username and PIN
B. A username and password
C. A username, password, finger print scan, and smart card
D. A username, password, and key fob number
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019   certification JK0-019

NO.12 Joe, a user, is unable to reach websites, but is able to ping several Internet IPv4 addresses. Which of
the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. Incorrect subnet mask
B. Incorrect DNS
C. Missing default gateway
D. Incorrect IPv6 address
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following is a form of encrypting packets for safe, secure data transmission within a
network?
A. RAS
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. ICA
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-019   certification JK0-019   JK0-019   JK0-019

NO.14 Joe, a network technician, is tasked with installing a router and firewall to get an office working with
Internet access.
Which of the following features MUST be configured to allow sharing of a single public IP address?
A. QoS
B. POP3
C. PAT
D. SMTP
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019   certification JK0-019

NO.15 Which of the following network scanners detects and sends out alerts for malicious network activity?
A. Packet sniffers
B. IDS
C. Port scanners
D. IPS
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   JK0-019   JK0-019

NO.16 Which of the following sizes is the fixed cell length in ATM?
A. 8 bytes
B. 53 bytes
C. 64 kilobytes
D. 128 kilobytes
Answer: B

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NO.17 The location that the local network connection ends and the ISP responsibility begins is known as the:
A. Access point.
B. Default gateway.
C. IDF connection.
D. Demarcation point.
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019 examen   JK0-019

NO.18 Joe, a technician, is configuring ports on a switch. He turns off auto-negotiation and sets the port
speed to 1000 Mbps. A user s PC is no longer able to access the network.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. The user s NIC does not support 1Gbps
B. The switch is not compatible with 1000Mbps.
C. The user's NIC does not support 100Mbps.
D. Joe needs to restart the DNS server.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following network appliances would facilitate an even amount of traffic hitting each web
server?
A. Load balancer
B. VPN concentrator
C. Proxy server
D. Content filter
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019   JK0-019 examen   JK0-019

NO.20 Sandy, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access
the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: SG0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Storage+ Powered by SNIA)
Questions et réponses: 250 Q&As

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NO.1 When deploying a LUN from a storage array to a host over a SAN, which of the following steps
must be done for the host to see the LUN? (Select TWO).
A. The switches must be zoned to allow the host to see the array
B. The host must authenticate against the array for SCSI access
C. The host must enable the Persistent Binding Function on its HBA
D. The switches must be zoned to allow the host to see the LUN
E. The array must be configured to expose the LUN to the host
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 In order to protect the storage area network, a new firewall has been installed at the
company's datacenter. Once installed, all servers lost the remote storage and crashed. Which of the
following will restore communication between the servers' network and the SAN?
A. UDP port 6320 must be permitted between the two networks.
B. TCP port 3260 must be permitted between the two networks.
C. All servers must be configured to use hardware iSCSI initiators.
D. All servers must rescan the LUNs which have been masked by the firewall
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following replication types is the FASTEST?
A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous
C. Incremental
D. Differential
Answer: A

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NO.4 When setting up replication for application spanning multiple LUNs, which of the following
replication features should be utilized?
A. Clone
B. Snapshot
C. Semi-synchronous Replication
D. Consistency Group
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is a benefit of tiered storage?
A. Lowers cost over time
B. Provides redundancy to all clients
C. Increases physical security
D. Enables disaster recovery
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator has configured storage for a server, and would like to ensure that other
systems do not accidentally gain access to this server's storage by plugging into the system's port.
Which of the following would provide a solution?
A. RCSN
B. Port zoning
C. Virtual fabric
D. WWN zoning
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following defines the difference between fibre channel switch fabric and fibre
channel arbitrated loop technologies?
A. Bandwidth vs.I/O
B. B. Speed vs. Distance
C. Shared vs. Dedicated
D. Coax vs. Fiber
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following RAID levels will allow an administrator to lose only two drives within
the RAID group and not lose data?
A. RAID 1+0
B. RAID A
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is the appropriate tool for an administrator to use to provide a file
system to a host with assigned storage LUNs?
A. LBA
B. LVM
C. VBA
D. FBA
Answer: B

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NO.10 A host-based logical volume manager is used to migrate data from an old array to a newer
one.
The storage administrator has completed the physical connections, zoning, and masking, but the
storage volumes from the new array are still not visible on the host. Which of die following steps
should be performed NEXT?
A. Change the HBA driver topology configuration
B. Replace failed HBA
C. Run fcping
D. Bus rescan
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ADR-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Mobile App Security+ Certification Exam (Android Edition))
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following can be performed to find security design flaws in mobile apps prior to
writing code?
A. Threat modeling
B. Penetration testing
C. Static source code analysis
D. Dynamic validation testing
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is fundamental to MOST transport layer encryption implementations?
A. Device passcode
B. Obfuscation
C. HTTPS
D. Keychain
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following attempts to inhibit an application from being trojanized and
proliferating?
A. Tamper protection in code.
B. Encrypting config file.
C. Ensure appropriate permissions are deployed to every component.
D. Login credentials delivered over network with HTTPS.
Answer: A

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NO.4 When handling sensitive data with Android apps, which of the following storage strategies is
MOST secure?
A. Store data on device using encryption, with encryption key managed on the server
B. Prompt users to enable encryption
C. Store sensitive data locally in XML protected with file permissions
D. Store sensitive data on the server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is the MOST reliable form of input validation?
A. Positive validation of input data using regular expression processing
B. Base64 encoding of input data
C. Validating the bounds of input data using a character set
D. HTML or URI encoding of input data and ensuring Unicode support
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following accurately explains why many people criticize the use of a unique
hardware ID such as IMEI/MEID to identify users? (Select TWO).
A. The hardware ID can be traced to an individual user and help track activity over time and across
apps
B. The hardware ID unlocks encryption on the device
C. Companies encode email addresses directly into the hardware ID
D. Hardware ID values are easily predictable
E. Users cannot selectively block apps' access to it
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which of the following is a reason to take mobile app security seriously when developing a
social networking app that does NOT accept payments? (Select TWO).
A. PCI-DSS regulations
B. Consumer privacy expectations and regulations
C. HIPAA regulations
D. FIPS compliance
E. Company reputation
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Which of the following techniques are useful in a secure software development process?
(Select TWO).
A. Cross platform compatibility testing with HTML5
B. Using hardware encryption to protect all data on the device
C. Static code analysis
D. Abuse/misuse case analysis
E. Implementation of two-factor authentication
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following will LEAST likely be detected through source code analysis?
A. Improper certificate validation
B. Buffer overflow vulnerability
C. Improper build process
D. Hardcoded credentials
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following methodologies is BEST for a developer to find input validation
weaknesses in their own mobile app source code?
A. Disassembly of mobile app executable
B. Threat modeling
C. Fuzz testing an app's attack surface
D. Single stepping an app through a debugger
Answer: C

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2014年1月28日星期二

Dernières CompTIA IK0-002 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: IK0-002
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (I-NET+ CERTIFICATION)
Questions et réponses: 221 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one has speeds off 51.84Mbps?
A. T1
B. T3
C. OC1
D. OC3
Answer: C

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NO.2 What TCP/IP protocol can be used for directory access?
A. LDAP
B. HTTP
C. FTP
D. NNTP
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the default port for HTTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which is not a required HTML Tag?
A. <TEXTAREA>
B. <Body>
C. <Head>
D. <HTML>
Answer: A

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NO.5 What uses vector graphics to display web images?
A. Flash
B. Shockwave
C. Real Media D. QuickTime VR
Answer: A

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NO.6 What do you call the first DNS server?
A. First
B. Master
C. Slave
D. Primary
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which device cannot be infected with a virus?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Gateway D. NIC
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which supports animation of graphics on web?
A. GIF87A
B. GIF89A
C. jpeg
D. png
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which DNS record tells you mail servers?
A. PTR
B. RP
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: D

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NO.10 What network device enables you to communicate with other systems using different protocol?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Bridge
D. Gateway
Answer: D

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NO.11 Your company has connection with the business partners. What is it called?
A. Intranet
B. Extranet
C. Internet
D. Private network
Answer: B

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NO.12 When a system is sent ICMP echo requests repeatedly, it is a
A. PING attack
B. SYN attack
C. SPOOFING
D. Telnet attack
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which supports encryption?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. PPP
D. SLIP
Answer: C

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NO.14 What do you need on your e-commerce system to process credit card transactions?
A. Online catalog
B. Virtual shopping carts/Checkouts
C. Merchant system
D. Intranet
Answer: C

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NO.15 You have a Remote access server (RAS) used by your colleagues working at home. You are
concerned about the security. What should you do to have a better security measure?
A. Installing firewall
B. Change password
C. Use SSL for the connection
D. Enable call back
Answer: D

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NO.16 How are cookies stored?
A. Unencrypted text file on client
B. Unencrypted text file on server
C. Encrypted text file on client
D. Encrypted text file on server
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which command checks the current open TCP/IP connections?
A. netstat
B. Ping
C. ipconfig
D. winipcfg
Answer: A

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NO.18 What UART chip is needed to provide a modem connection of 115200 bps?
A. 85.xx
B. 65.xx
C. 100.xx
D. 165.xx
Answer: D

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NO.19 When a new idea is being considered for adoption regarding the Internet, it is first posted as an:
A. FAQ
B. RFC
C. PDP
D. PDF
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which executes on server side?
A. CGI
B. C++
C. JavaScript
D. VBG
Answer: A

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NO.21 What is the default port for Telnet?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 80
Answer: B

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NO.22 What is the default port for FTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: A

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NO.23 What are the best types of documents to distribute using Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)?
A. Memos
B. Orders and invoices
C. Reports
Answer: B

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NO.24 How many 64 Kbps channels are in a ISDN?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.25 What is the default port for SMTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

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NO.26 Web graphics 40mm x 60mm. Which format do you load to achieve the fastest download when user
browses?
A. 72dpi
B. 98dpi
C. 100dpi
D. 300dpi
Answer: A

CompTIA   IK0-002 examen   IK0-002   IK0-002

NO.27 Your company has heterogeneous systems (different operating systems/machines). You want to have
a better security and you want your company to issue certificates for user communication. What server
should you implement?
A. Directory server
B. Certificate server C. Authentication server
D. Telnet server
Answer: B

CompTIA   IK0-002   IK0-002   IK0-002 examen   IK0-002 examen

NO.28 Which command matches IP address to MAC address?
A. arp
B. ipconfig
C. winipcfg
D. nbtstat
Answer: A

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NO.29 Within a DNS record where can you find the name of the administrator.
A. PTR
B. SOA
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: B

CompTIA   IK0-002   IK0-002

NO.30 What TCP/IP utility is used to see current contents of a packet on your computer?
A. tracert
B. protocol analyzer
C. ping
D. ipconfig
Answer: B

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